His Name; JESUS = Matthew 1;21, 25

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Miz KJV Only

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His Name; JESUS = Matthew 1;21, 25



Matthew 1;21, 25


And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call His name JESUS: for He shall save his people from their sins.

And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called His name JESUS.


Matthew 12:21

And in His name shall the Gentiles trust.


Luke 1:31

And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call His name JESUS.


Luke 2:21

And when eight days were accomplished for the circumcising of the child, His name was called JESUS, which was so named of the angel before He was conceived in the womb.


Luke 24:46-47

And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day: And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in His name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.


John 1:12

But as many as received Him, to them gave He power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on His name:


John 2:23

Now when He was in Jerusalem at the passover, in the feast day, many believed in His name, when they saw the miracles which He did.


John 20:31

But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through His name.


Acts 3:16

And His name through faith in His name hath made this man strong, whom ye see and know: yea, the faith which is by Him hath given him this perfect soundness in the presence of you all.


Acts 10:43

To Him give all the prophets witness, that through His name whosoever believeth in Him shall receive remission of sins.


I John 2;12

I write unto you, little children, because your sins are forgiven you for His name's sake.


AMEN
 

Robert Gwin

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His Name; JESUS = Matthew 1;21, 25



Matthew 1;21, 25


And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call His name JESUS: for He shall save his people from their sins.

And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called His name JESUS.


Matthew 12:21

And in His name shall the Gentiles trust.


Luke 1:31

And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call His name JESUS.


Luke 2:21

And when eight days were accomplished for the circumcising of the child, His name was called JESUS, which was so named of the angel before He was conceived in the womb.


Luke 24:46-47

And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day: And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in His name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.


John 1:12

But as many as received Him, to them gave He power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on His name:


John 2:23

Now when He was in Jerusalem at the passover, in the feast day, many believed in His name, when they saw the miracles which He did.


John 20:31

But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through His name.


Acts 3:16

And His name through faith in His name hath made this man strong, whom ye see and know: yea, the faith which is by Him hath given him this perfect soundness in the presence of you all.


Acts 10:43

To Him give all the prophets witness, that through His name whosoever believeth in Him shall receive remission of sins.


I John 2;12

I write unto you, little children, because your sins are forgiven you for His name's sake.


AMEN
Why did God want him called Jesus maam?
 

Grailhunter

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For those interested in the truth.....
Most people believe that the name Jesus was translated from the Greek word Ἰησοῦς… (Iēsous). But it is not, this is ultimately a substitution of a word. And there are some that blame the Septuagint but that is not why the error occurred. The Greek word "Ἰησοῦς" is not a name. It is a description, that is why you can look all through Greco-Roman history and not find a Greek person named Ἰησοῦς… (Iēsous). The Greek word Ἰησοῦς means noble or honorable man....not a name.

There is no reason to run it through the Septuagint to explain it or the language mills, all that is a decoy from the truth. The word Jesus does not have anything to do with the Greek or the Septuagint and no one knows where it came from. The explanations up front are all lies, you have to dig deeper into the linguistics and the history. The history of the word Jesus does not go back that far. The word Jesus did not appear in The Tyndale Bible 1532....The Geneva Bible 1560.....nor the original King James Version 1611. All these Bibles used the Latin-Vulgate word for Yeshua...Iesus--Iēsūs because these translations relied heavily on the Latin-Vulgate and the textus receptus, but ignored Christ's actual name.

Unraveling this is just a matter of turning the brain on....people do not think about what is being dumped in their laps. Miriam did not name her Son with a Greek or Latin name! Come on! Brain on! Why would people think that? Christ's name is Hebrew...יהושוע... Pronounced Yeshua....spelt יהושוע and when it came out of Miriam's lips it sounded like e-Yeshua...and Yeshua can be spelt in English. See the word? To be more accurate you have to add an e tang to the Y....eYeshua. The Strong's Exhaustive Concordance pronounces it ... ee-ay-sooce which is an attempt to pronounce the Greek word Ἰησοῦς not the Hebrew יהושוע for Yeshua. Look up how to pronounce יהושוע...it is not that hard or complicated.

You can spell Yeshua, you can read Yeshua, you can say Yeshua, Just as well as Christ's mother....Same thing for Yahweh. And according to the scriptures Yeshua is the only name that can be called upon for salvation....will any name due? We are going to hope so.

Those that dealt with the scripture translations had a real desire to mess with the names ....not just one person, not at any one time. At one time Yahweh's name was in the Old Testament nearly 6,000 times. Then it was replaced with the tetragrammaton....then it was completely removed and replaced with a description....God or Lord which are not names either. Most Christian Bibles do not have the names of God the Father or God the Son in them. What does that do to the power of the scriptures? Who would want to remove the names of God the Father and God the Son from the scriptures....?

Some are trying to put God the Father's name and God the Son's name back into the scriptures but that can be difficult because in some scriptures Yahweh had regional names that started with el.

Is there power in the names of God the Father and God the Son? Are they important? I believe so.

The more complicated question is why would the Apostles use a generic Greek name for the Messiah? Which goes along with why the Apostles wrote the New Testament in a Pagan language….Greek?
 
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Grailhunter

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As I said in post 5...
The word Jesus did not appear in The Tyndale Bible 1532....The Geneva Bible 1560.....nor the original King James Version 1611. All these Bibles used the Latin-Vulgate word...Iesus--Iēsūs which is not a name.

As Paul Harvey use to say, "Stay tuned for the rest of the story."

Not only did these Bibles not have the word Jesus in them, they did not use the letter J. Why is that? Because it would be impossible! The Letter J was first introduced by a man called “Gian Giorgio Trissino” in the year 1524. And from there it slowly caught on.

Why and how did it catch on? Speculation is that it was partly due to the popularity of the plays of William Shakespeare in the early 1600's, of which this style of language can be seen in the King James Version of the Bible, which is not seen in earlier translations of the Bible. So then the revision of the King James Version in 1632 change the word Iesus to the name Jesus and changed all the names of persons, places, and things in the Bible from "Y's" to "J's" If you are ever in Jerusalem ask a Jew the name of their city in the Hebrew.....it does not start with a J.

Beyond that you can look at the Strong's Exhaustive Concordance and look up names like Job, Joshua, Jacob, Joseph....and you find that these names are pronounced with a Y.

So God the Father's name is Yahweh and God the Son's name is Yeshua.
 
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Grailhunter

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"Jesus" means "Salvation of Jehovah".
THAT'S why he is named such.
No it does not.
Beyond the fact that there are no J's in the scriptures.
So nothing in the scriptures can translate to Jesus.
The word used for the Messiah in the scriptures is Greek for noble man.....it is not even a name it is a word.
No one knows where the word Jesus came from.
It just appeared around the 16th century.
The first revision of the King James Version did not use the word Jesus. And then of course the word did not appear in The Tyndale Bible 1532....The Geneva Bible 1560
 

theJW

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Come ON!
Do your RESEARCH!

Jesus’ name in English comes from the Latin Isus, which is a transliteration of the Greek Iesous, which is a transliteration of the Aramaic name Yeshua, which comes from the Hebrew Yehoshua, or Joshua. The name comes from the Hebrew verb yasha, which means “he saves,” and the proper name “Ya,” which is short for the name Yahweh. Put together, Jesus’ name in its original languages means “Yahweh saves” or “Yahweh is salvation.”
 
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Grailhunter

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Come ON!
Do your RESEARCH!

Jesus’ name in English comes from the Latin Isus, which is a transliteration of the Greek Iesous, which is a transliteration of the Aramaic name Yeshua, which comes from the Hebrew Yehoshua, or Joshua. The name comes from the Hebrew verb yasha, which means “he saves,” and the proper name “Ya,” which is short for the name Yahweh. Put together, Jesus’ name in its original languages means “Yahweh saves” or “Yahweh is salvation.”
Jesus is English but no one knows were it came from.
No J's in the Old or New Testament. You probably study at a very shallow level. But even if you are using something like the Strong's you can look up names like Job, Jacob, Joshua, Joseph....you will find they are pronounced with a Y.
The Greek word Iesous is not a name and it does not translate to Jesus.....Nothing in the Bible translates to Jesus.
The letter J came out in the 16th century as well as any word that used it.
Do you really think that Miriam would have named her son using a Greek word.
Yeshua and His family were Jews and His name was Hebrew.
Really this is not something that is hard to understand.
Yeshua is His name. Pronounced e-Yeshua. And it is not Jehovah either, it is Yahweh.
 
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Grailhunter

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No J's in the scriptures. But still freedom of Religion.....maybe you are part of one of those UFO religions where Christ is an alien time traveling UFO pilot that loaded up the saucer with bags of J's to take back in biblical times for them to use. But for the rest of us, we could not use J's until the 16th century, that is why the letter J did not appear in the first print of the King James Version. Before that no J's in the King James Version.......because the letter did not exist yet.
 

Robert Gwin

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For those interested in the truth.....
Most people believe that the name Jesus was translated from the Greek word Ἰησοῦς… (Iēsous). But it is not, this is ultimately a substitution of a word. And there are some that blame the Septuagint but that is not why the error occurred. The Greek word "Ἰησοῦς" is not a name. It is a description, that is why you can look all through Greco-Roman history and not find a Greek person named Ἰησοῦς… (Iēsous). The Greek word Ἰησοῦς means noble or honorable man....not a name.

There is no reason to run it through the Septuagint to explain it or the language mills, all that is a decoy from the truth. The word Jesus does not have anything to do with the Greek or the Septuagint and no one knows where it came from. The explanations up front are all lies, you have to dig deeper into the linguistics and the history. The history of the word Jesus does not go back that far. The word Jesus did not appear in The Tyndale Bible 1532....The Geneva Bible 1560.....nor the original King James Version 1611. All these Bibles used the Latin-Vulgate word for Yeshua...Iesus--Iēsūs because these translations relied heavily on the Latin-Vulgate and the textus receptus, but ignored Christ's actual name.

Unraveling this is just a matter of turning the brain on....people do not think about what is being dumped in their laps. Miriam did not name her Son with a Greek or Latin name! Come on! Brain on! Why would people think that? Christ's name is Hebrew...יהושוע... Pronounced Yeshua....spelt יהושוע and when it came out of Miriam's lips it sounded like e-Yeshua...and Yeshua can be spelt in English. See the word? To be more accurate you have to add an e tang to the Y....eYeshua. The Strong's Exhaustive Concordance pronounces it ... ee-ay-sooce which is an attempt to pronounce the Greek word Ἰησοῦς not the Hebrew יהושוע for Yeshua. Look up how to pronounce יהושוע...it is not that hard or complicated.

You can spell Yeshua, you can read Yeshua, you can say Yeshua, Just as well as Christ's mother....Same thing for Yahweh. And according to the scriptures Yeshua is the only name that can be called upon for salvation....will any name due? We are going to hope so.

Those that dealt with the scripture translations had a real desire to mess with the names ....not just one person, not at any one time. At one time Yahweh's name was in the Old Testament nearly 6,000 times. Then it was replaced with the tetragrammaton....then it was completely removed and replaced with a description....God or Lord which are not names either. Most Christian Bibles do not have the names of God the Father or God the Son in them. What does that do to the power of the scriptures? Who would want to remove the names of God the Father and God the Son from the scriptures....?

Some are trying to put God the Father's name and God the Son's name back into the scriptures but that can be difficult because in some scriptures Yahweh had regional names that started with el.

Is there power in the names of God the Father and God the Son? Are they important? I believe so.

The more complicated question is why would the Apostles use a generic Greek name for the Messiah? Which goes along with why the Apostles wrote the New Testament in a Pagan language….Greek?
I have always wondered why Jesus is called Jesus since his name in English is Joshua. I will say that God accepts it however, I would bet that his name is the most known name among the earth's population.
 
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Grailhunter

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I have always wondered why Jesus is called Jesus since his name in English is Joshua. I will say that God accepts it however, I would bet that his name is the most known name among the earth's population.
The story is more involved than that.
God the Father's name is Yahweh and at one time His name or variances of it appeared in the Old Testament nearly 6000 times.....they removed them all and replaced His name with the words Lord or God.

Then the J slam occurred and all the Y's were replaced with J's. Person, places and things that started with Y's were replaced with J's. Yericho, Yerusalem, Yob, Yacob, Yoseph etc

Christ's name is Yeshua and it can be Yahoshua....kind of like Ed and Edward....never appeared in the New Testament. Now some people know that Yeshua was a common Old Testament name.....in the Bibles of today it appears as Jeshua or Joshua because of the J slam. But only in Bibles that were printed after the letter J came out in 1529. The King James Version got caught is the middle of this process. Christ's name appeared in the first print of the KJV as Iesus and in later revisions shifted to J's and the word Jesus appeared.

The Apostles choose to pick a Greek word for Christ's name..... Iesus.....not a name...a word....no one in Greco-Roman history is named Iesus... it means noble man or noble healer. Iesus does not translate to Jesus....no one can nail down exactly where the name Jesus came from.

Either way, most Bibles do not include the names of God the Father and God the Son.....Which begs the question.....who would want that?

There are Bibles called Sacred Name Bibles that are putting their names back in Bible.
 

Robert Gwin

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The story is more involved than that.
God the Father's name is Yahweh and at one time His name or variances of it appeared in the Old Testament nearly 6000 times.....they removed them all and replaced His name with the words Lord or God.

Then the J slam occurred and all the Y's were replaced with J's. Person, places and things that started with Y's were replaced with J's. Yericho, Yerusalem, Yob, Yacob, Yoseph etc

Christ's name is Yeshua and it can be Yahoshua....kind of like Ed and Edward....never appeared in the New Testament. Now some people know that Yeshua was a common Old Testament name.....in the Bibles of today it appears as Jeshua or Joshua because of the J slam. But only in Bibles that were printed after the letter J came out in 1529. The King James Version got caught is the middle of this process. Christ's name appeared in the first print of the KJV as Iesus and in later revisions shifted to J's and the word Jesus appeared.

The Apostles choose to pick a Greek word for Christ's name..... Iesus.....not a name...a word....no one in Greco-Roman history is named Iesus... it means noble man or noble healer. Iesus does not translate to Jesus....no one can nail down exactly where the name Jesus came from.

Either way, most Bibles do not include the names of God the Father and God the Son.....Which begs the question.....who would want that?

There are Bibles called Sacred Name Bibles that are putting their names back in Bible.
Thanks Grail, I think you have hit the nail on the head why translators chose Jesus instead of Joshua. I think I recall learning that once, but had forgotten it. Thanks for the info sir.
 
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