Part 1
"Let a woman learn in silence with full submission. I permit no woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she is to keep silent. For Adam was formed first, then Eve; and Adam was not deceived, but the woman was deceived and became a transgressor. Yet she will be saved through childbearing, provided they continue in faith and love and holiness, with modesty." (1 Tim 2:11-15)
According to Paul a wamna has to have a child to be saved. You may think I’m joking, but there is a serious point here. Paul is clearly defining a separate path of salvation for men and for women.
The bulk of scripture is about how men are saved. Paul to the gaoler – a man. Jesus to Nicodemus, the scribes and Pharisees – all men. Who is Paul addressing in his letter to the Romans? Men – “Are you unaware brothers” (Rom 7:1); “In the same way my brothers...” (Rom 7:4). James – about works + faith – “What good is it my brothers…” (James 2:14).
His letter to Timothy is the only time Paul specifically addresses the route of salvation for women “she will be saved through childbearing..” (1Tim 2:15).
So women, you can forget about repenting, or believing or being baptised, all you need is the work of childbearing (and I’m told by women who have done this that it is hard work).
Its True – Its Biblical – Prove me wrong.
In his statement that women will be saved through childbearing Paul gives no indication that they should be married. Indeed in his letter to the Corinthians he says that he prefers that all stay unmarried.
"To the unmarried and the widows I say that it is well for them to remain unmarried as I am" (1 Cor 7:8)
Obviously Paul also prefers women to be saved. So what he seems to be advocating here is that women should have children so as to saved, but do so in an unmarried state. Is he setting aside the Old Testament strictures against fornication being sinful?
No, obviously not. So we must look for another explanation. We cannot take Paul as speaking of childbearing literally. He is probably speaking of symbolical childbearing, or perhaps more likely spiritual childbearing. But what would spiritual childbearing or spiritual birthing be? What is spiritual birth?
The obvious clue to this is in Jn 3:5 where Jesus tells Nicodemus that he must be born from above (born again). Nicodemus takes this literally. But Jesus explains he means spiritually and that he must be “born of water and Spirit”. This follows the correct sequence of physical and then spiritual as noted in 1Cor15:46 “But it is not the spiritual that is first, but the physical, and then the spiritual.” Now there are two actions here, one earthy (water) which is water baptism by a human agent (the woman who is going to spiritually rebirth them). The other is heavenly (Spirit) which is God’s action. “He saved us, not because of any works of righteousness that we had done, but according to his mercy, through the water of rebirth and renewal by the Holy Spirit.” (Ti 3:5)
So women are to spiritually birth men by baptising them. And here we men must repent because for centuries we have been reserving baptism for male clergy and depriving women of their chance of salvation. Note that women do not need to be baptised as they are saved by the act of spiritually birthing men (i.e. baptising them).
Note the efficiency of this. Two people are saved for the price of one act. This is economical - part of what the Catholic Catechism calls the sacramental economy (joke for Catholics).
So ladies I give you a new slogan:
Baptise and Be Saved
It’s True – Its Biblical
Now read the next post (Part 2)
20 Now the man named his wife Eve, because she was the mother of all
the living. NASB
20 The man called his wife's name Eve, because she was the mother of all living. ESV
And the man called his wife’s name
aEve; because she was the mother of all living. JPS Tanaach
Every literal translation I've looked at says the same thing and calls Eve the mother of all living. Yet, she hadn't given birth yet and the verse doesn't limit the living to mankind (we just make that very logical assumption.) So Adam, the son of God, names Eve prophetically.
Then we have the cryptic verse in 1 Timothy chapter 2:
For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived, fell into transgression. 15 Nevertheless she will be saved in childbearing if they continue in faith, love, and holiness, with self-control.
Verse 15 has caused a lot of people to scratch their heads, but what if Paul meant what the verse in context says. Verse 14 calls Eve, "the woman" because she hadn't been named yet, verse 15 in normal grammatical usage refers to the woman that Adam called Eve being saved
if they continue in faith, love, and holiness, with self-control.
Who is the "they" in verse 15 then? Normal grammatical usage would suggest that the "they" is referring to Adam and Eve, but how do they "continue" unless this refers to their descendants, humanity and "all living?"
If we alter the verse to "all living will be saved in child bearing if they continue in faith, love, and holiness, with self control", we have an opening for the everlasting gospel, that I've summarized as "fear God and live". Now, this is not the gospel of Jesus Christ, but does describe behavior consistent with life under the law, and life "in christ." The statement is conditional, but since it is given in reference to Adam and Eve, by Paul who has used Adam to express the fallen condition of man, it would seem that Paul was talking about unregenerate mankind. If that were the case, then we could understand that unregenerate mankind (or at least the female half) would be saved by continuing to bear children with that condition that they continue
in faith, love, and holiness, with self-control.
