Peter the Apostle's = Wife ???

[Behold]

Peter the apostle : is defined by a certain religious organization, as being their "1st Pope".

So, my question is.........(because Peter was married) :

1 Corinthians 9:5. : Paul says..... "Don't WE have the right to take a believing WIFE along with US, as do = the other apostles and the Lord Jesus's Brothers... and Peter """" ?

Now Saints..... thats an interesting verse on a lot of levels... as it confirms, 1st of all... that Jesus The Christ had "BROTHERS"..... which means that the virgin Mary had more children later on.
And Notice carefully....= that Paul makes the distinction between Apostles and "the Lord's Brothers" so that a heretic can't lie to you and say that the Apostles in this verse, are the "brothers".
See, you have to watch out, or liars will come running towards you and do all sorts of scripture twisting to try to hide the Truth, from you.

Now, my question is....... If Peter, who is defined as the "1st Pope" by a certain religious organization , has a Wife,.... and Paul says that all the Apostles can have one also... as well as Jesus's Brothers... then why does the Catholic Church FORBID their Priests to also have a wife and family?

Paul didn't forbid it.
Jesus (God) doesn't forbid it.


Thats a point to ponder....isnt' it ?

 

[101G]

Addressing the OP, good topic,
Thats a point to ponder for the Roman Catholic. this is the problem today in all denominations. they make up their own rules and regulations, for their denomination. this is not just a Roman Catholic problem, or a JW problem, or a SDA, or even a Mormon Problem, but a christian, or so called christian problem.

1 Corinthians 1:10 "Now I beseech you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that ye all speak the same thing, and that there be no divisions among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment."

PICJAG
101G The "Spiritual Saboteur"

 

[dev553344]

Peter the apostle : is defined by a certain religious organization, as being their "1st Pope".

So, my question is.........(because Peter was married) :

1 Corinthians 9:5. : Paul says..... "Don't WE have the right to take a believing WIFE along with US, as do = the other apostles and the Lord Jesus's Brothers... and Peter """" ?

Now Saints..... thats an interesting verse on a lot of levels... as it confirms, 1st of all... that Jesus The Christ had "BROTHERS"..... which means that the virgin Mary had more children later on.
And Notice carefully....= that Paul makes the distinction between Apostles and "the Lord's Brothers" so that a heretic can't lie to you and say that the Apostles in this verse, are the "brothers".
See, you have to watch out, or liars will come running towards you and do all sorts of scripture twisting to try to hide the Truth, from you.

Now, my question is....... If Peter, who is defined as the "1st Pope" by a certain religious organization , has a Wife,.... and Paul says that all the Apostles can have one also... as well as Jesus's Brothers... then why does the Catholic Church FORBID their Priests to also have a wife and family?

Paul didn't forbid it.
Jesus (God) doesn't forbid it.


Thats a point to ponder....isnt' it ?

They would perhaps quote 1 Corinthians 7:1-2

 

[Berserk]

Paul implies that Peter took his wife with him on his missionary tours. Peter calls Mark his "son" (1 Peter 5:13); so it is natural to view Mark as his biological son! Clement of Alexandria discusses Peter's children. When Paul refers to Timothy and Titus as his "child," he clarifies that he means "child in the faith." With Peter's wife with him, it is natural to assume that the his son might join them in their ministry.

When Peter's is delivered from prison in Jerusalem, he immediately visits the house of Mary and (John) Mark. Why? To let his wife and son know he is now safe, but must leave Jerusalem. Peter tells them to inform James of his escape, but doesn't tell them to inform his family. Why? Because Mary is his wife and Mark is his son. His top priority would be to notify his family of his situation. For the prior 18 years Jerusalem had been Peter's missionary base and surely his family would have joined him there rather than be left abandoned in Galilee. All this means that the Gospel of Mark contains Dad's [Peter's] memoirs! Papias says Mark was Peter's interpreter in Rome and implies that he wrote his Gospel after Peter's martyrdom.

 

[Behold]

They would perhaps quote 1 Corinthians 7:1-2

Of course, Devin

But as you know, there is reality called " scriptural context" , and "rightly dividing"....
So, when we read a verse that says that "its good for a man not to touch a woman"... that is written by the Same Gentile Apostle who told you to deliver "due benevolence" to your mate.....which is to make sure they are satisfied sexually, and that "" the marriage bed is undefiled"....that is to say, that the union of intimacy between a man and a woman is God given and God ordained., within the boundary of Marriage.

So, we have to allow the verse to be compared, as.. scripture with scripture so that we can get the revelation.
.....we have to rightly divide this verse that Paul wrote concerning "not touching", using some contexts and some basic common sense.
For example, if from the Time Paul wrote that, ......no man ever again touched a woman, then you would not be alive as the human race would be Extinct.
See that?
Also, God said in Genesis1 to "replenish the earth".

So, there is a context and a doctrinal interpretation, regarding what Paul is saying..

See, Paul and all the Apostles thought that Jesus was going to come right back.
That is what they all believed.....that the 2nd coming of Christ was going to happen while they were alive.
So, Paul and not just Paul, looked at it like this... "If you marry, and have a family, you will have trouble in this world"....so, being that Jesus is about to come back, "its best to not touch a woman" and instead just do the work of God as Jesus will be here again, any day.

So, Paul gives you that..... and he also lets you know that its perfectly fine to be married....its not WRONG, its God Given, and that is why he talks about the Brother's of Jesus and Peter have a WIFE.

So now, the issue with forced celibacy , that is created by a Religious RULE, is that when you make men do this, when you force them to agree to what is unnatural..... you are going to cause pedophilia or a similar alt sexual behavior., as humans are not designed to be celibate.
The are designed to make babies and enjoy sexual intimacy.
The human sex drive is a demanding, forceful, needful, natural human desire that God created to exist just like that, ....
So, if you forcibly repress the sex drive in a Man, and leave him like that for LIFE, you have harmed him in a way that is going to play out as a future sexuality issue.
Believe it , Reader.
Listen.....If you force this sexual repression, as a religious requirement, or a "doctrine of Devils'.... then you will cause a systemic issue within that Religious Organization that will play out as pedophilia, or similar.

This organization will pretend that all these Priest are "given the gift of Celibacy", and yet for hundreds and hundreds of years this inhuman requirement, has caused what the Religious Organization would like to continue to hide and pretend that its not the reality.
But it IS the reality, as this religious organization CREATES this Systemic Epidemic, with this hellish religious rule, and it will continue to be a big issue for this organization.

 

[Pearl]

Peter the apostle : is defined by a certain religious organization, as being their "1st Pope".

So, my question is.........(because Peter was married) :

1 Corinthians 9:5. : Paul says..... "Don't WE have the right to take a believing WIFE along with US, as do = the other apostles and the Lord Jesus's Brothers... and Peter """" ?

Now Saints..... thats an interesting verse on a lot of levels... as it confirms, 1st of all... that Jesus The Christ had "BROTHERS"..... which means that the virgin Mary had more children later on.
And Notice carefully....= that Paul makes the distinction between Apostles and "the Lord's Brothers" so that a heretic can't lie to you and say that the Apostles in this verse, are the "brothers".
See, you have to watch out, or liars will come running towards you and do all sorts of scripture twisting to try to hide the Truth, from you.

Now, my question is....... If Peter, who is defined as the "1st Pope" by a certain religious organization , has a Wife,.... and Paul says that all the Apostles can have one also... as well as Jesus's Brothers... then why does the Catholic Church FORBID their Priests to also have a wife and family?

Paul didn't forbid it.
Jesus (God) doesn't forbid it.


Thats a point to ponder....isnt' it ?

Matthew 8:14
When Jesus came into Peter’s house, he saw Peter’s mother-in-law lying in bed with a fever.

 

[dev553344]

Of course, Devin

But as you know, there is reality called " scriptural context" , and "rightly dividing"....
So, when we read a verse that says that "its good for a man not to touch a woman"... that is written by the Same Gentile Apostle who told you to deliver "due benevolence" to your mate.....which is to make sure they are satisfied sexually, and that the marriage bed is undefiled....that is to say, that the union of intimacy between a man and a woman is God given and God ordained., within the boundary of Marriage.

So, we have to allow the verse to be compared, as.. scripture with scripture so that we can get the revelation.
.....we have to rightly divide this verse that Paul wrote concerning "not touching", using some contexts and some basic common sense.
For example, if from the Time Paul wrote that, ......no man ever again touched a woman, then you would not be alive as the human race would be Extinct.
See that?
Also, God said in Genesis1 to "replenish the earth".

So, there is a context and a doctrinal interpretation, regarding what Paul is saying..

See, Paul and all the Apostles thought that Jesus was going to come right back.
That is what they all believed.....that the 2nd coming of Christ was going to happen while they were alive.
So, Paul and not just Paul, looked at it like this... "If you marry, and have a family, you will have trouble in this world"....so, being that Jesus is about to come back, "its best to not touch a woman" and instead just do the work of God as Jesus will be here again, any day.

So, Paul give you that and he also lets you know that its perfectly fine to be married....its not WRONG, its God Given, and that is why he talks about the Brother's of Jesus and Peter have a WIFE.

So now, the issue with forced celibacy , that is created by a Religious RULE, is that when you make men do this, when you force them to agree to what is unnatural..... you are going to cause pedophilia or a similar alt sexual behavior., as humans are not designed to be celibate.
The are designed to make babies and enjoy sexual intimacy.
The human sex drive is a demanding, forceful, needful, natural human desire that God created to exist just like that, ....
So, if you forcibly repress the sex drive in a Man, and leave him like that for LIFE, you have harmed him in a way that is going to play out as a future sexuality issue.
If you force this sexual repression, as a religious requirement, or a "doctrine of Devils'.... then you will cause a systemic issue within that Religious Organization that will play out as pedophilia, or similar.

This organization will pretend that all these Priest are "given the gift of Celibacy", and yet for hundreds and hundreds of years this inhuman requirement, has caused what the Religious Organization would like to continue to hide and pretend that its not the reality.
But it IS the reality, as this religious organization CREATES this Systemic Epidemic, and it will continue .

Either that or the Holy Spirit is non-sexual (Galatians 5:22-25), so when immersed in it you're OK, and evil crept into those celibate churches intentionally. Not that I disagree with what you said, I'm unsure.

 

[Behold]

Either that or the Holy Spirit is non-sexual (Galatians 5:22-25), so when immersed in it you're OK, and evil crept into those celibate churches intentionally. Not that I disagree with what you said, I'm unsure.

IN the 1st century there was a disciple named Origen.
He was a radical sold out believer who took all the scriptures literally, as in his religious zeal he had no ability to consider that verses, some, are symbolic, and some are allegory..

He read one that said. """which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake."""

So, he took a knife and castrated himself, literally......not symbolically.

Moral of the story?
Listen to Paul, do not listen to those who teach "doctrines of devil's".
Moral of the Story #2 .. research "Pauline Theology".
Moral of the Story #3. .. Study with a Pauline Theologist, only, till you are Grace Centered and Spiritually and Theologically Balanced, and then, you'll be fine, always.

 

[Enoch111]

Peter the Apostle's = Wife ???

What kind of equation is that? Even a fourth-grader would say that this is definitely not an equation. What you could have said is :

PETER + WIFE = NO CELIBACY BUT A HAPPY MARRIAGE

Anyway, this is just another Catholic bashing thread. At the same time requiring celibacy in priests (which is real life does not even work) is a doctrine of demons.

 

[Behold]

What kind of equation is that? Even a fourth-grader would say that this is definitely not an equation. What you could have said is :

PETER + WIFE = NO CELIBACY BUT A HAPPY MARRIAGE

Anyway, this is just another Catholic bashing thread. At the same time requiring celibacy in priests (which is real life does not even work) is a doctrine of demons.

First, let me explain that my title is not a Math equation.
Start there..

Its like this... Can Peter the Apostle have a = "wife" ????, when a religious organization that proclaims him to be the 1st Pope, forbids Pope's to have a wife.
Did you realize this, or do only 4th Graders realize this, Enoch111 ???

So, my Thread's title is asking if Peter can have a = WIFE????

A.) Not according to the Catholic Church.

B.) According to Paul , he did., and so did the Brother's of Jesus.

 

[Pearl]

If a 4th grader can comprehend the topic, then im sure its right up your alley.

So, let me explain that my title is not a Math equation.
Start there..

Its like this... Can Peter the Apostle have a = "wife" ????, when a religious organization that proclaims him to be the first Pope, forbids Pope's to have a wife.

So, my Thread's title is asking if Peter can have a = WIFE????

A.) Not according to the Catholic Church.

But according to the bible he DID have a wife. Can't deny that.

 

[Pearl]

Peter the apostle : is defined by a certain religious organization, as being their "1st Pope".

So, my question is.........(because Peter was married) :

1 Corinthians 9:5. : Paul says..... "Don't WE have the right to take a believing WIFE along with US, as do = the other apostles and the Lord Jesus's Brothers... and Peter """" ?

Now Saints..... thats an interesting verse on a lot of levels... as it confirms, 1st of all... that Jesus The Christ had "BROTHERS"..... which means that the virgin Mary had more children later on.
And Notice carefully....= that Paul makes the distinction between Apostles and "the Lord's Brothers" so that a heretic can't lie to you and say that the Apostles in this verse, are the "brothers".
See, you have to watch out, or liars will come running towards you and do all sorts of scripture twisting to try to hide the Truth, from you.

Now, my question is....... If Peter, who is defined as the "1st Pope" by a certain religious organization , has a Wife,.... and Paul says that all the Apostles can have one also... as well as Jesus's Brothers... then why does the Catholic Church FORBID their Priests to also have a wife and family?

Paul didn't forbid it.
Jesus (God) doesn't forbid it.


Thats a point to ponder....isnt' it ?

I remember asking this question on a different discussion.
And about Peter being the first pope, he would have been dead for hundreds of years by the time the Catholic church was formed,