11. John said it was the “last hour” (1 John 2:18) when he was writing. Does that mean that its fulfillment is now 17 million hours late?
My sources list the time of authorship as 90ad, just before his exile and the authorship of Revelation which many believe was around 95-96 ad.. Hour was just one of the adjectives reflecting the nearness of time. Also, during the first century many of the signs of Matt. 24 seemed to be occurring and throughout there were many persecutions, a couple of volcanoes, a drought in Jerusalem, Roman wars, etc. It is not unwarranted that the authors wrote that way to inspire persecuted christians to hold on, that the end of all their trials may be near, hoping to strengthen their faith and inspire hope among them.
12. If the GREAT COMMISSION is not yet fulfilled, why did Paul say it had been fulfilled when he was writing (Roman 1:8; 10:18; Colossians 1:5-6, 23)?
Rom. 1:8 is speaking of the nations of the known world, not every village or continent. 10:18 is speaking of creation and he is repeating Ps. 19:4 something written centuries before the Great Commission was given. As far as the Col. Vss. Are concerned, I can only surmise that he is speaking of the world as known to them but we know there were a lot pieces of the world left that was unknown to them. Although mention of the world hearing the gospel is in these verses there is nothing that implies the Great Commission was completed.
13. If “heaven and earth” have not yet passed away, does that mean that every jot and tittle of the law is still in effect (Matthew 5:17-18)?
This passage is open-ended but I think it can be better understood in context through the passages in Lk. 18:31; 22:37 and 24:27 where it is speaking of the prophecies concerning Him that ended with His crucifixion.
14. If the NEW JERUSALEM is a future physical location, how is it possible that the Hebrews in the first century were already there (Hebrews 12:22)?
First is doesn’t say “New” Jerusalem, however he is telling them that by faith they can access the kingdom of God as can all believers through the ages, however, this doesn’t take away from the reality that Jesus will also set up and earthly kingdom where he will rule and reign for a thousand years. Once we accept Christ as our Savior we automatically become citizens of heaven, it just takes our death to make that a reality.
15. If Jesus was going to return literally and physically (Acts 1:11), why do we read that his ascension was hidden from view by a cloud? If Jesus is going to return LITERALLY “in like manner” (Acts 1:11), does that also mean that He will return riding a white horse (Revelation 19:11)?
As a futurist, the bible depicts the two stages of Christ’s return. The first for the rapture as seen in Matt. 24:30-31 and then again for the culmination of the 70th week at Armageddon as depicted in Rev. 19:11-16.
16. If Jesus was to return in a physical, visible appearance to the whole world, why did He tell his first-century disciples (John 14:19) that the world would never see him again?
Obviously, He is speaking of His pre-death living body. After His resurrection, as far as I know, only believers saw Him. We know the apostles did after His resurrection and they are part of the world too. In the context, He wasn’t prophesying but speaking of His crucifixion.
17. If the King James Version of the Bible really speaks of an end to the physical universe, why is “end of the world” found in the King James Version consistently translated as “end of the AGE” in modern translations and literal translations (like Young’s Literal Translation)?
I do not believe the bible speaks of an end to the physical universe, per se but a change from the world as we know it.
18. If the last-days events are still future to us, why are there over 100 passages in the New Testament that declare that these events would happen soon?
God’s timing, already covered.
19. If “soon” means “2000 years later,” does that mean it was going to take Timothy 2000 years to be sent to the Philippians by Paul (Philippians 2:19)?
“Soon” may not be the best word as I couldn’t find that used in the KJV with prophetic significance however as with most of the biblical words it has many translation possibilities. I counted seven with various meaning and/or tenses.
20. If the prophetic passages were fulfilled once in the first century, and then again thousands of years later, why is there no hint of this by Jesus and the biblical writers?
The vast majority of prophetic passages have yet to come to pass. Actually, ad 70, imo, has no prophetic significance at all except maybe LK. 21:24. One can only see them as being fulfilled by taking away the literal interpretation and use very questionable symbolism, that in most cases have nothing to do with the reality. There may seem to be a couple of things in Dan. 9:24, 27 but if it’s not 100% it’s not a fulfillment.
My sources list the time of authorship as 90ad, just before his exile and the authorship of Revelation which many believe was around 95-96 ad.. Hour was just one of the adjectives reflecting the nearness of time. Also, during the first century many of the signs of Matt. 24 seemed to be occurring and throughout there were many persecutions, a couple of volcanoes, a drought in Jerusalem, Roman wars, etc. It is not unwarranted that the authors wrote that way to inspire persecuted christians to hold on, that the end of all their trials may be near, hoping to strengthen their faith and inspire hope among them.
12. If the GREAT COMMISSION is not yet fulfilled, why did Paul say it had been fulfilled when he was writing (Roman 1:8; 10:18; Colossians 1:5-6, 23)?
Rom. 1:8 is speaking of the nations of the known world, not every village or continent. 10:18 is speaking of creation and he is repeating Ps. 19:4 something written centuries before the Great Commission was given. As far as the Col. Vss. Are concerned, I can only surmise that he is speaking of the world as known to them but we know there were a lot pieces of the world left that was unknown to them. Although mention of the world hearing the gospel is in these verses there is nothing that implies the Great Commission was completed.
13. If “heaven and earth” have not yet passed away, does that mean that every jot and tittle of the law is still in effect (Matthew 5:17-18)?
This passage is open-ended but I think it can be better understood in context through the passages in Lk. 18:31; 22:37 and 24:27 where it is speaking of the prophecies concerning Him that ended with His crucifixion.
14. If the NEW JERUSALEM is a future physical location, how is it possible that the Hebrews in the first century were already there (Hebrews 12:22)?
First is doesn’t say “New” Jerusalem, however he is telling them that by faith they can access the kingdom of God as can all believers through the ages, however, this doesn’t take away from the reality that Jesus will also set up and earthly kingdom where he will rule and reign for a thousand years. Once we accept Christ as our Savior we automatically become citizens of heaven, it just takes our death to make that a reality.
15. If Jesus was going to return literally and physically (Acts 1:11), why do we read that his ascension was hidden from view by a cloud? If Jesus is going to return LITERALLY “in like manner” (Acts 1:11), does that also mean that He will return riding a white horse (Revelation 19:11)?
As a futurist, the bible depicts the two stages of Christ’s return. The first for the rapture as seen in Matt. 24:30-31 and then again for the culmination of the 70th week at Armageddon as depicted in Rev. 19:11-16.
16. If Jesus was to return in a physical, visible appearance to the whole world, why did He tell his first-century disciples (John 14:19) that the world would never see him again?
Obviously, He is speaking of His pre-death living body. After His resurrection, as far as I know, only believers saw Him. We know the apostles did after His resurrection and they are part of the world too. In the context, He wasn’t prophesying but speaking of His crucifixion.
17. If the King James Version of the Bible really speaks of an end to the physical universe, why is “end of the world” found in the King James Version consistently translated as “end of the AGE” in modern translations and literal translations (like Young’s Literal Translation)?
I do not believe the bible speaks of an end to the physical universe, per se but a change from the world as we know it.
18. If the last-days events are still future to us, why are there over 100 passages in the New Testament that declare that these events would happen soon?
God’s timing, already covered.
19. If “soon” means “2000 years later,” does that mean it was going to take Timothy 2000 years to be sent to the Philippians by Paul (Philippians 2:19)?
“Soon” may not be the best word as I couldn’t find that used in the KJV with prophetic significance however as with most of the biblical words it has many translation possibilities. I counted seven with various meaning and/or tenses.
20. If the prophetic passages were fulfilled once in the first century, and then again thousands of years later, why is there no hint of this by Jesus and the biblical writers?
The vast majority of prophetic passages have yet to come to pass. Actually, ad 70, imo, has no prophetic significance at all except maybe LK. 21:24. One can only see them as being fulfilled by taking away the literal interpretation and use very questionable symbolism, that in most cases have nothing to do with the reality. There may seem to be a couple of things in Dan. 9:24, 27 but if it’s not 100% it’s not a fulfillment.
