Revelation 20 says Satan is bound from deceiving the nations or ethnos no more. Per the Premill view Satan has not yet been bound from deceiving the nations but will be in the future.What does it mean for satan to be bound if one is going by what Revelation 20 records? Does it not mean that he is laid hold upon then cast into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and a seal set upon him? How does one get cast into something that allegedly doesn't even literally exist, meaning the bottomless pit in this case? With that in mind, being cast into something, what about the following?
Revelation 20:10 And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever.
Here we see this same satan being cast into another place, the LOF in this case. Is one going to argue that the LOF is not a literal place, thus satan is not literally being cast into anywhere? Assuming one might not argue that, why would they then argue that per the bottomless pit example, then argue the opposte per the LOF example, that the bottomless pit is not a literal place but that the LOF is?
One thing reality teaches us by comparing to the real world, that the reason satan is bound, so that he can no longer deceive the nations until he is loosed first, that this is simply not the case yet. Therefore, though he is still limited to some degree as to what he can or can't do, he is not being prevented in any way from deceiving the nations, though. Clearly, he is still doing that and has never stopped doing that since he began doing it.
Revelation 20:3 And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.
The keywords in this verse is 'no more'. Let's see how that same phrase is used elswhere in the book of Revelation.
Revelation 7:16 They shall hunger no more, neither thirst any more; neither shall the sun light on them, nor any heat.
What should we take 'no more' to mean here? Exactly what it says, that they shall hunger no more? Or the opposite of what is says, that they shall hunger some more?
Revelation 18:21 And a mighty angel took up a stone like a great millstone, and cast it into the sea, saying, Thus with violence shall that great city Babylon be thrown down, and shall be found no more at all.
What should we take 'no more' to mean here? Exactly what it says, that the great city Babylon shall be found no more at all? Or the opposite of what is says, that the great city Babylon shall still be found some more?
Shouldn't we then apply 'no more' in Revelation 20:3 in the same manner, that it means exactly what it says, rather than the opposite of what it says?
Let’s look at the one world government idea for example. Can Satan currently deceive the nations into a one world government? We know Babylon was considered a one world government (Daniel 2:38), so Satan can’t be currently bound from creating a one world government right now unless we are in the millennium.
We are extremely divided in the US, no matter who is elected president this fall, there won’t be unity among the ungodly. If you argue that God hasn’t allowed a one world government to happen yet, then Satan is currently bound in this aspect.
What do you suppose deceiving the nations means?