The strange wording of Isaiah 43:10

[DJT_47]

I find this wording to be very strange. See if you agree. Look at the word I've highlighted and ask yourself why it's there or if the paragraph would be sufficient without it. But with it, what is or could be construed to be inferred? I'll say no more.

Isaiah 43:10

10Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.

 

[RedFan]

I find this wording to be very strange. See if you agree. Look at the word I've highlighted and ask yourself why it's there or if the paragraph would be sufficient without it. But with it, what is or could be construed to be inferred? I'll say no more.

Isaiah 43:10

10Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.

Yes, it is a little strange to refer to God as "formed" -- something implied by the verse, but not actually stated. (I suppose "No God was formed before me" and "No God will be formed after me" is consistent with "and I wasn't 'formed' either.")

 

[Wrangler]

Yes, it is a little strange to refer to God as "formed"

This verse re-asserts YHWH (aka God the Father) is the only God. From REV translation:
You are my witnesses,”says Yahweh,
“and my servant whom I have chosen,
that you may know and believe me,
and understand that I am he.
Before me there was no God formed, nor will there be after me.

 

[FaithWillDo]

I find this wording to be very strange. See if you agree. Look at the word I've highlighted and ask yourself why it's there or if the paragraph would be sufficient without it. But with it, what is or could be construed to be inferred? I'll say no more.

Isaiah 43:10

10Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.

Dear DJT_47,
This verse is not hard to understand when one understands that Jesus was created (formed) by "His God" who is the "Father of all".

Rev 3:14 And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God;

2Cor 11:31 The God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, which is blessed for evermore, knoweth that I lie not.

Eph 1:17 That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him:

Eph 4:4 There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; 5 One Lord, one faith, one baptism, 6 One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.

God the Father created Jesus Christ to be mankind's God prior to the beginning of this creation. And by Jesus Christ all things in this creation came into existence:

1Cor 8:6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.

Joe

 

[Wrangler]

Regarding ‘formed’ gods; YHWH is unique in the pantheon of gods in that he is eternal.

To understand this verse, you need to correct the understanding of the word ‘god’ to align with the existence of many god who are prevalent in being formed. Too many imbue the word incorrectly to only mean YHWH. See 1 COR 8:5, Ps 82 (CEV).

 

[RedFan]

o understand this verse, you need to correct the understanding of the word ‘god’ to align with the existence of many god who are prevalent in being formed. Too many imbue the word incorrectly to only mean YHWH.

You mean, like every Jewish scholar for the past 2,700 years?

 

[DJT_47]

Yes, it is a little strange to refer to God as "formed" -- something implied by the verse, but not actually stated. (I suppose "No God was formed before me" and "No God will be formed after me" is consistent with "and I wasn't 'formed' either.")

Yes, it is a little strange to refer to God as "formed" -- something implied by the verse, but not actually stated. (I suppose "No God was formed before me" and "No God will be formed after me" is consistent with "and I wasn't 'formed' either.")

Similarly strange wording or phraseology is also found in Genesis. See below from a previous post of mine elsewhere.

Genesis 6:6

"6And it repented the LORD that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him at his heart."

Why does the above say "on the earth"? If the earth was the only place humans were made on, then those words would be unnecessary and would read "and it repented the LORD that he made man"

 

[BlessedPeace]

You mean, like every Jewish scholar for the past 2,700 years?

Jews were Polytheists first.

 

[RedFan]

Jews were Polytheists first.

Not when Isaiah 43 was written.

 

[BlessedPeace]

Not when Isaiah 43 was written.

Not necessarily.

The Origins of Biblical Monotheism: Israel's Polytheistic Background and the Ugaritic Texts (Oxford/New York: Oxford University Press, 2001) | Bible Interp

bibleinterp.arizona.edu

 

[RedFan]

Not necessarily.

The Origins of Biblical Monotheism: Israel's Polytheistic Background and the Ugaritic Texts (Oxford/New York: Oxford University Press, 2001) | Bible Interp

bibleinterp.arizona.edu

I'll just lift this quote out of the website you have linked:

"On the whole, Smith's book -- following a number of other scholars-- shows how Israelite polytheism was a feature of Israelite religion down through the end of the Iron Age and how monotheism emerged in the seventh and sixth centuries. It is in this period when the clearest monotheistic statements can be seen in the Bible, for example, in the apparently seventh-century works of Deuteronomy 4:35, 39, 1 Samuel 2:2 (earlier?), 2 Samuel 7:22, 2 Kings 19:15, 19 (= Isaiah 37:16, 20), and Jeremiah 16:19, 20 and the sixth-century portion of Isaiah 43:10-11, 44:6, 8, 45:5-7, 14, 18, 21, and 46:9."

 

[Ronald Nolette]

I find this wording to be very strange. See if you agree. Look at the word I've highlighted and ask yourself why it's there or if the paragraph would be sufficient without it. But with it, what is or could be construed to be inferred? I'll say no more.

Isaiah 43:10

10Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.

Simplest reponse I can bring:

As Israel and the nations surrounding them were into idolatry and false Gods, God was simply saying no God was ever made before or after him.