At John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4-the only 2 spots in the nt where more than 1 being is called God or god--translating works the same at both spots=0 doubt.
At John 1:1 the Greek word given to the true God=God ends in a v. The words Greek word ends in a g=god---At 2 Cor 4:4- Satans Greek word ends in a g=god, The true Gods Greek word ends in a v=God.--So either satan gets God, or the word gets god--We all know satan is not God thus its the word who gets god in reality. Billions mislead by satans will over the centuries by a single letter alteration. What does one expect in altered translations?
At John 1:1 the Greek word given to the true God=God ends in a v. The words Greek word ends in a g=god---At 2 Cor 4:4- Satans Greek word ends in a g=god, The true Gods Greek word ends in a v=God.--So either satan gets God, or the word gets god--We all know satan is not God thus its the word who gets god in reality. Billions mislead by satans will over the centuries by a single letter alteration. What does one expect in altered translations?
