Was Jesus a Jew?

  • Welcome to Christian Forums, a Christian Forum that recognizes that all Christians are a work in progress.

    You will need to register to be able to join in fellowship with Christians all over the world.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

n2thelight

Well-Known Member
Dec 24, 2006
4,052
787
113
60
Atlanta,Ga
JESUS WAS NOT A JEW!By Benjamin. H. Freedman, [A Hebrew] Historian - Researcher - Scholar.From Common Sense, 2-1-53 and 5-1-59; reprinted in The Christian Guard Dispatch 76-77."Christians Duped By The Unholiest Hoax in All History, By So-Called Jews. This is Considered Their Most Effective Weapon.""This 'big lie' technic is brainwashing U.S.A. Christians into believing that Jesus Christ was "King of the Jews", in the sense that so-called 'Jews' today call themselves 'Jews'. This reference was first made in English translations of the Old and New Testaments, centuries before the so-called Jews highjacked the word 'Jew' in the 19th A.D. century to palm themselves off on the Christian world as having a kinship with Jesus Christ. This alleged kinship comes from the myth of their common ancestry with the so-called 'Jews' of the Holy Land in the Old Testament history, a fiction based on fable.""U.S.A. Christians little suspect they are being brainwashed twenty-four hours of every day over television and radio, by newspapers and magazines, by motion pictures and plays, by books, by political leaders in office and seeking office, by religious leaders in their pulpits and outside their churches, by leaders in the field of education inside and outside their cirricular activities, and by all leaders in business, professions and finance, whose economic security demands that they curry the favor of so-called "Jews" of historic Khazar ancestry. Unsuspecting Christians are subjected to this barrage from sources they have little reason to suspect.Incontestible facts supply the unchallengable proof of the historic accuracy that so-called "Jews" throughout the world today of eastern European origin are unquestionably the historic descendants of the Khazars, a pagan Turco-Finn ancient Mongoloid nation deep in the heart of Asia, according to history, who battled their way in bloody wars about the 1st century B.C. into eastern Europe where they set up their Khazar kingdom. For some mysterious reason the history of the Khazar kingdom is conspicuous by its absence from history courses in the schools and colleges.The historic existence of the Khazar kingdom of so-called "Jews", their rise and fall, the permanent disappearance of the Khazar kingdom as a nation from the map of Europe, and how King Bulan and the Khazar nation in 720 A.D. became so-called "Jews" by conversion, were concealed from U.S.A. Christians by censorship imposed by so-called "Jews", of historic Khazar ancestry, upon all U.S.A. media of mass communications directed by them. Then in 1945 this author [Benjamin. H. Freedman] gave nation-wide publicity to his many years intensive research into the "facts of life" concerning Khazars. The disclosures were sensational and very effective but apparently angered so-called "Jews" who have continued to vent their spleen upon this author since then solely for that reason. Since 1946 they have conducted a vicious smear campaign against this author, seeking thus to further conceal these facts, for obvious reasons.Read the rest of this article herehttp://www.biblestudysite.com/news10b.htm#3
 

RobinD69

New Member
Oct 7, 2007
293
1
0
54
Jesus claimed to be a Jew and if He wasnt then that makes Him a liar and therefor we are still in our sins.
 

Nova

New Member
Sep 20, 2007
137
2
0
65
Jesus was a Jew from the house of David. Check the genealogies in the New Testament.Jesus has to be the most lied about figure in history. Satan works hard to keep us from the truth. Or distort the truth.You're just passing along the article, right? It isn't what you believe?
 

n2thelight

Well-Known Member
Dec 24, 2006
4,052
787
113
60
Atlanta,Ga
RobinD69
Jesus claimed to be a Jew and if He wasnt then that makes Him a liar and therefor we are still in our sins.
Where in the Bible did Jesus claim to be a JewNova
You're just passing along the article, right? It isn't what you believe?
Right now Im not sure,however I will do more research
 

Nova

New Member
Sep 20, 2007
137
2
0
65
The first chapter of Matthew list the geneaology of Jesus. Pretty easy to verify from the Bible that he was Jewish.
 

Nova

New Member
Sep 20, 2007
137
2
0
65
Okay, I glanced thru some of the articles (from the website you posted.) I hope you aren't learning either history or Christianity from that site. Because they are way off base.I sense you have questions. Hopefully we can help with those.
 

n2thelight

Well-Known Member
Dec 24, 2006
4,052
787
113
60
Atlanta,Ga
Nova
Okay, I glanced thru some of the articles (from the website you posted.) I hope you aren't learning either history or Christianity from that site. Because they are way off base.
Actually I have learned a lot from that site.Why do you feel it's off base?
The first chapter of Matthew list the geneaology of Jesus. Pretty easy to verify from the Bible that he was Jewish.
Matthew 1:1 "The book of the generation of Jesus Christ, the Son of David, the Son of Abraham."The problem wuth this is the fact that we must assume that Abraham and David were Jews.So the question is,were they?
 

MickinEngland

New Member
Dec 15, 2006
339
1
0
75
The word Jew has a double meaning, no wonder the ordinary man-in-the-street gets confused..Technically Jesus was a Jew because he was born in Israel.But the word Jew was also used to refer to the Jewish priestly classes, but Jesus certainly wasn't one of them, as proven by the fact it was they who killed him..
 

Christina

New Member
Apr 10, 2006
10,885
101
0
15
I agree somewhat MickThe so called Jews became called Jews because the practiced the religion that became known as Judaism These were for the most part Hebrews the Hebrew race came to be called Jews, much the way we call mid. easterners Muslims because they dress a certain way and come from a certain geographical region and follow the same religion. Jesus would have been a Hebrew by birth born into a region and people who practiced Judaism. Was he a worshiping Jew yes and No he was the embodyment of Christiany but then Christianity has its roots in Judaism.Judaism was started and taught by God himself to the Group of peoples called Hebrews, How to worship the one true God. Its just that some of the rituals and ordinances were to prepare them for the fulfillment of Gods plan of salvation in Christ, and many Jews did not recognize these things as types of what was to come. It was this group of Jews that refused to change their ways and see Christ as the fulfillment of their prophies, ordinances and rituals that we know as Jews today. Anyone can become a Jew by practicing Judaism but not anyone can become a Hebrewsame as anyone can become a Christian. But none of us can change our ethnic genes So Jesus was a Hebrew He practiced the Jewish laws that were laid out by the fatherand he was the fulfillment of the rituals and ordinances laid out so had no reason to follow them.For example he broke sabbath rules because he became our Sabbath(rest)Hebrews (or Heberites, Eberites, Hebreians "Habiru" or "Habiri"; Hebrew: עברים or עבריים, Standard ʿIvrim, ʿIvriyyim Tiberian ʿIḇrîm, ʿIḇriyyîm; meaning "descendants of biblical Patriarch Eber"), were people who lived in Canaan, an area encompassing Israel, both banks of the Jordan River (The West Bank and Jordan), Sinai, Lebanon, and the coastal portions of Syria. Traditionally they are also known as the ancestors of the Israelites.
 

RobinD69

New Member
Oct 7, 2007
293
1
0
54
(n2thelight;19931)
NovaActually I have learned a lot from that site.Why do you feel it's off base?Matthew 1:1 "The book of the generation of Jesus Christ, the Son of David, the Son of Abraham."The problem wuth this is the fact that we must assume that Abraham and David were Jews.So the question is,were they?
David was a Jew and Abreham was a Hebrew.We dont need to assume anything because Jesus was of the tribe of Judah.Now if you are going to do more word play,make sure you have your facts straight.
 

n2thelight

Well-Known Member
Dec 24, 2006
4,052
787
113
60
Atlanta,Ga
RobinD69
David was a Jew and Abreham was a Hebrew.We dont need to assume anything because Jesus was of the tribe of Judah.Now if you are going to do more word play,make sure you have your facts straight.
Im not doing word play,and again where in the Bible does Jesus claim to be a Jew?First of all, God made His covenant with Israel, not with so-called Jews. The Jews didn't come into being until approx 500 b.c. during (and after) the Babylonian captivity. God made His covenant with Israel well over a 1000 years before there was any such thing as a "Jew." Those today who call themselves "Jews" are impostors and are not of Israel. For a "Jew" is a religion, not a race. The word "Jew" did not appear in any Bible until the 18th century. The modern day word “Jew” is the 18th century contracted and corrupted English word for the 4th century Latin “Iudaeus” found in St. Jerome’s Vulgate Edition. Two best known 18th century editions of the New Testament in English are the Rheims (Douai) and the King James Version Bible (the A.V. or Authorized Version). The Rheims (Douai) translation of the New Testament was first printed in 1582 but the word “Jew” did not appear in it. The King James Authorized translation of the New Testament into English was begun in 1604 and first published in 1611. The word “Jew” did not appear in it either. The word “Jew” appeared in both these well known editions in their 18th century revised versions for the first times. Herein lies the confusion that is exploited by the impostors. What are commonly referred to as "Jews" today are not the people that the Holy Spirit was speaking of in the Bible. In the Bible, the word "Jew" means Judean. But today (from the 1700's on) a 'certain' people adopted the title "Jew" and have moved right into the place of chosen Israel. In the Bible, the word “Jew” means anyone of the region of Judea, or, any of the house of Judah. One must take each Scripture by itself to determine which meaning is to be affixed. However, today, the word “Jew” means a follower of Judaism, which is the corrupted religion of the Old Testament era Hebrews founded during the Babylonian captivity of approx. 500 b.c. It is not the religion of the Hebrews in the Old Testament handed down from God to Moses on the Mount, but rather, it is a Babylonian corruption of that religion founded not on the Old Testament Scriptures but rather upon the Babylonian Talmud (added writings, the oral TRADITIONS of the ancient Rabbis) and the Kabbalah (Jewish mysticism). These facts are not disputed by the Rabbis themselves In the Bible you see the term "Jew" used quite a bit. But it isn't in the same sense that we today use the term "Jew." The Word Jew in the Bible can mean two different things: either a descendant of the tribe of Judah OR a person from the land of Judaea (the region in which Jerusalem resides, a 'county' or 'province' so to speak) but not necessarily of the tribe of Judah. it's like you can be an Irishman and live in Germany and yet not be a German. Don't let the different languages and the names in them confuse you on this. Observe: Jew: Greek word #2453 Ioudaios (ee-oo-dah'-yos); from #2448 (in the sense of #2455 as a country); Judaean, i.e. belonging to Jehudah ["Judah" in Hebrew language of Old Testament] : KJV-- Jew (-ess), of Judaea. Greek word #2448 Iouda (ee-oo-dah'); of Hebrew origin [Hebrew word #3063 or perhaps #3194]; Judah (i.e. Jehudah or Juttah), a part of (or place in) Palestine: KJV-- Judah. Greek word #2455 Ioudas (ee-oo-das'); of Hebrew origin [Hebrew #3063]; Judas (i.e. Jehudah), the name of ten Israelites; also of the posterity of one of them and its region: KJV-- Juda (-h, -s); Jude. Judaea: 1). In a narrower sense, to the southern portion of Palestine lying on this side of the Jordan and the Dead Sea, to distinguish it from Samaria, Galilee, Peraea, and Idumaea. 2). In a broader sense, referring to all Palestine. So in the Bible when you see someone referred to as a "Jew" it could mean a 'good' one like those Jews whom believed upon Jesus Christ, OR, it could mean a 'bad' one like the Jews that sought to kill Jesus Christ: Acts 2:5 (good) 5 And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven. (KJV) John 7:1(bad) 1 After these things Jesus walked in Galilee: for he would not walk in Jewry, because the Jews sought to kill him. (KJV) Just because you see someone called a "Jew" in the Bible does not necessarily mean that they are a devote chosen man of God, nor, necessarily an evil person with corrupt religion. You have to take each one in context of the Scripture, the Scripture will let you know which kind of 'Jew' is being spoken about. That is what "Jew" means in the Bible, but that has absolutely nothing to do with the so-called "Jews" of today. "Strictly speaking, it is incorrect to call an ancient Israelite a "Jew." Or to call a contemporary Jew [an] "Israelite," or a "Hebrew." The first Hebrews may not have been Jews at all, and contemporary Palestinians, by their own definition of the term "Palestinian," have to include Jews among their own people." --The Jewish Almanac, Oct., 1980, page 3, Bantam Books, Inc. Under a headline entitled... 'IdentityCrisis'.
 

Nova

New Member
Sep 20, 2007
137
2
0
65
I think you are caught up in semantics. Whether you call them Jews, or Jewish, or Israelites. This same people group are the ancestors of Jesus.
 

gradkiss

New Member
Oct 10, 2007
8
0
0
71
In Catholic and Orthodox tradition, Saint Joachim was the husband of Saint Anne and the father of the Virgin Mary, and therefore is ascribed the title of "forebearer of God. ...source:wikipedia Both Joachim and Anna were Jew, and of the House of David. Joseph and Mary were naturally too. Paul was always pointing out that tradition, as required by some Jew, would be their downfall. That all mankind was the equal, as long as we are able to refute the lies that divide us. All are Chosen, as we; living as seperately stationed individuals, choose to be chosen, in every manner that comes before us. It's when we choose to be righteous, that we experience abhoration, or what mankind continually does not do correctly.
 

tim_from_pa

New Member
Jul 11, 2007
1,656
12
0
65
("n2thelight")
Im not doing word play,and again where in the Bible does Jesus claim to be a Jew?
It matters not. What is important is Jesus' genealogy. Technically, a Jew is from the tribe of Judah; that's where the name 'Jew' has its origins. Likewise, if I had Pa Dutch ancestry, that makes me Pa Dutch whether or not I admit it.Now, if people want to debate Jesus' genealogy, that's another story. But given the fact that the NT starts off with his genealogy, that in itself is making the claim of the Jewishness of Jesus, specifically, the house of King David.Pretty black and white to me.
 

tomwebster

New Member
Dec 11, 2006
2,041
107
0
76
Jesus was 100% God. And, in the flesh Jesus was both of the house of Judah and of the house of Levi.
 

HammerStone

Well-Known Member
Staff member
Feb 12, 2006
5,113
279
83
36
South Carolina
prayerforums.com
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
Jesus was 100% God. And, in the flesh Jesus was both of the house of Judah and of the house of Levi.
Agreed, 100%.
smile.gif
 

tim_from_pa

New Member
Jul 11, 2007
1,656
12
0
65
(tomwebster;20220)
Jesus was 100% God. And, in the flesh Jesus was both of the house of Judah and of the house of Levi.
I concur. The Levitical lineage of Jesus is often overlooked, and mainliners do not even acknowledge it.But for sure his genealogies in Matthew and Luke both point to King David of the tribe of Judah, and therefore the original point regarding Jesus' Jewishness is answered in that alone.
 

MickinEngland

New Member
Dec 15, 2006
339
1
0
75
(Nova;20232)
Jesus is 100% God. And 100% man.
Yes or looked at another way, 50% God and 50% man..
wink.gif
He knew his human side meant he could never be on a par with God, which is why he felt obliged to remind people - -"Why do you call me good? No one is good except God alone" (Luke 18:19)
 

Jordan

Active Member
Apr 6, 2007
4,875
6
38
(MickinEngland;20254)
Yes or looked at another way, 50% God and 50% man..
wink.gif
He knew his human side meant he could never be on a par with God, which is why he felt obliged to remind people - -"Why do you call me good? No one is good except God alone" (Luke 18:19)
50% God and 50% man?...That is so wrong...so wrong. I heard exactly like that from a nonChristian. He called it a "demi-god".Yahshua was God in the flesh (John 1:14, I Timothy 3:16) and He is God cause He was there since the beginning. (Genesis 1:1, John 1:1)Love much, JagLovest ye in Christ Yahshua our Lord and Saviour.