A video I watched several months ago rhetorically asked this question. While it is absurd to suppose "the Father" is not THE Father of Jesus, Scripture is crystal clear it was the Holy Spirit. So, on what basis does one answer the question?
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A video I watched several months ago rhetorically asked this question. While it is absurd to suppose "the Father" is not THE Father of Jesus, Scripture is crystal clear it was the Holy Spirit. So, on what basis does one answer the question?
A video I watched several months ago rhetorically asked this question. While it is absurd to suppose "the Father" is not THE Father of Jesus, Scripture is crystal clear it was the Holy Spirit. So, on what basis does one answer the question?
"Blessed be God, even the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of mercies, and the God of all comfort;" (2 Corinthians 1:3)
"For this cause I bow my knees unto the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ," (Ephesians 3:14)
"That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us: and truly our fellowship is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ." (1 John 1:3)
If Paul and John said that God was Christ’s Father, that’s good enough for me.
Yes, this one scripture (below) says that Mary was with child of the Holy Ghost, but ultimately God made that happen.
"Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost." (Matthew
Young’s literal translation shows the HS and the Father were involved:
Luk 1:35 And the messenger answering said to her, 'The Holy Spirit shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee, therefore also the holy-begotten thing shall be called Son of God;
I myself, don't believe that Gods Holy Spirit to be a person. I know there are scriptures that personify Gods Holy Spirit.
Jesus referred to the holy spirit as a “helper” and he said that this helper would “teach,” “bear witness,” “speak,” and ‘hear, but the scriptures also personify death, wisdom, grief and sighing, so I'm not going to believe that death, wisdom, sighing or grief are person's just because the scriptures personifies them. More evidence is needed to say whether Gods Holy Spirit is a person. We can't go only by the fact that the scriptures personify Gods Holy Spirit.
The scriptures also say concerning Gods Holy Spirit that people are baptized with the Holy Spirit, filled with the Holy Spirit and anointed with the Holy Spirit such statements don't make it seem to me that the Holy Spirit is a person.
As I said some scripture say that the spirit “spoke,” other passages however make clear that this was done through angels or humans. (Acts 4:24, 25; 28:25; Matt. 10:19, 20; Acts 20:23; 21:10, 11.) At 1 John 5:6-8, not only the spirit but also “the water and the blood” are said to ‘bear witness.’ So, none of the expressions found in these scriptures in themselves prove that the holy spirit is a person to me.
The point being is that the Only Begotten Son of God has a Father and God. Jesus tells us that after he is resurrected. John 20:17
A video I watched several months ago rhetorically asked this question. While it is absurd to suppose "the Father" is not THE Father of Jesus, Scripture is crystal clear it was the Holy Spirit. So, on what basis does one answer the question?
Your basic misunderstanding seems to be that the Holy Spirit does not speak for God. If indeed He speaks for God, and He does, then He is most certainly God Himself, acting through that Person of the Trinity.
Jesus said something similar about his own relationship with the Father. He said that when people saw him, they were actually seeing God. They were actually hearing God. The person of the Father was resident in the Person of the Son.
In the same way the Person of the Father is resident in the Person of the Spirit. When you hear the Spirit speak, whether through another Christian or by some other means, then you are hearing the Person of the Father speak through the Person of the Spirit.
I see thus far that no one can answer your OP simply and directly, except for the minimal response given by @n2thelight . Others skirt around it with their own words or scripture that does NOT have direct bearing on your OP question at all. Not surprising.A video I watched several months ago rhetorically asked this question. While it is absurd to suppose "the Father" is not THE Father of Jesus, Scripture is crystal clear it was the Holy Spirit. So, on what basis does one answer the question?
That is totally incorrect. So there is no need to labor this point.Scripture is crystal clear it was the Holy Spirit.
Not skirting around. Just not wasting time on this nonsense. So let's just take one verse and settle this.Others skirt around it with their own words or scripture that does NOT have direct bearing on your OP question at all. Not surprising.
Young's literal translation says both the HS and the father were involved:
That's all well and good Enoch although I would like to address the OP question as I would think you would be directly....Not skirting around. Just not wasting time on this nonsense. So let's just take one verse and settle this.
The God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, which is blessed for evermore, knoweth that I lie not. (2 Cor 11:31)
God the Father is the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ. And the Father declared several times "This is my beloved Son". So this thread is just for unnecessary controversy and vain jangling.
Your basic misunderstanding seems to be that the Holy Spirit does not speak for God. If indeed He speaks for God, and He does, then He is most certainly God Himself
While the Holy Spirit was involved in the supernatural conception of Christ, Jesus -- the eternal Word of God -- was the Son of God the Father from eternity past (John 1:1) And no one can have two fathers.Young's literal translation says both the HS and the father were involved:
I see thus far that no one can answer your OP simply and directly, except for the minimal response given by @n2thelight . Others skirt around it with their own words or scripture that does NOT have direct bearing on your OP question at all. Not surprising.
That is totally incorrect. So there is no need to labor this point.