Who is the Bondwoman?

[VictoryinJesus]

Who is of the bondwoman (Hagar)?
Who is of the freewoman (Sarah)?
Are the Jews still attempting to fulfil the Mosaic Law the bondwoman, or the freewoman? What about reborn gentiles? What about Islam?

 

[Stranger]

Who is of the bondwoman (Hagar)?
Who is of the freewoman (Sarah)?
Are the Jews still attempting to fulfil the Mosaic Law the bondwoman, or the freewoman? What about reborn gentiles? What about Islam?

Those born of the bondwoman are those born after the flesh. Not by promise. (Gal.4:23)

Those born of the freewoman are those born of God. (Gal. 4:28) Of promise of God.

The Jews are still rejecting Jesus Christ. They are still adhering to Mt. Sinai. (Gal. 4:24-25)

At this time the Jews are still an enemy to Christ and Christians.

Stranger

 

[VictoryinJesus]

Then I possibly have a crazy question. Wouldn't the freewoman (firstlings of his flock, the Lamb) come from Seth whom replaced Abel? And the bondwoman (flesh) come from Cain (fruit of the ground/ man's labor)? Wouldn't the bondwoman (under the mosaic Law) then also come from Ishmael instead of Isaac? I realize the promise was offered to Jews first, so I am still confused.

"And the angel of the Lord said unto her, Return to thy mistress, and submit thyself under her hands." (Genesis 16:9) Hagar was told to return to her mistress; foreshadowing flesh and works of the mosaic Law submitting to grace? "And the angel of the Lord said unto her, Behold, thou art with child, and shalt bear a son, and shalt call his name Ishmael; because the Lord hath heard thy affliction."(Ishmael meaning "God Listens").

"Nevertheless what saith the scripture? Cast out the bondwoman and her son: for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the freewoman." (Galatians 4:30)

 

[Stranger]

Then I possibly have a crazy question. Wouldn't the freewoman (firstlings of his flock, the Lamb) come from Seth whom replaced Abel? And the bondwoman (flesh) come from Cain (fruit of the ground/ man's labor)? Wouldn't the bondwoman (under the mosaic Law) then also come from Ishmael instead of Isaac? I realize the promise was offered to Jews first, so I am still confused.

"And the angel of the Lord said unto her, Return to thy mistress, and submit thyself under her hands." (Genesis 16:9) Hagar was told to return to her mistress; foreshadowing flesh and works of the mosaic Law submitting to grace? "And the angel of the Lord said unto her, Behold, thou art with child, and shalt bear a son, and shalt call his name Ishmael; because the Lord hath heard thy affliction."(Ishmael meaning "God Listens").

"Nevertheless what saith the scripture? Cast out the bondwoman and her son: for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the freewoman." (Galatians 4:30)

I believe you are pushing Paul's allegory to far. See (Gal.4:24-26) Paul takes this only to Sinai and the Jerusalem which is above. And these speak to children of the flesh and children of promise.

Without a doubt, Seth and those of his line were children of promise. But I don't think Paul is going back this far to make his point.

Those of the flesh from the bondwoman in the allegory always comes from Ishmael. Those who are children of promise come from Isaac.

Remember, the key here is not so much 'law and grace' as it is 'after the flesh' and 'by the spirit', or by promise. (Gal. 4:23)

Stranger

 

[VictoryinJesus]

Thank you. Something that has always puzzled me. Why the LORD told the woman "and thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee." And the LORD told Cain "And unto thee shall be his desire, and thou shalt rule over him." That is what caught my attention when Hagar was told by the LORD to return and submit to her mistress, Sarai. I am sorry. That has just been an lingering question of mine. Why such similar wording.

 

[Stranger]

Thank you. Something that has always puzzled me. Why the LORD told the woman "and thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee." And the LORD told Cain "And unto thee shall be his desire, and thou shalt rule over him." That is what caught my attention when Hagar was told by the LORD to return and submit to her mistress, Sarai. I am sorry. That has just been an lingering question of mine. Why such similar wording.

Your quite welcome I just read something on Eve's desire the other day that spoke to this. The author made the point that Satan, in targeting the woman and causing her to fall, separating her from her husband, may have believed she was now his servant and would willingly follow him. But God instead made the desire of the woman to her husband and her husband would rule over her.

I don't know exactly what the phrase, "And unto thee shall be his desire and thou shalt rule over him" in (Gen.4:7) means. I have heard several interpretations, but it seems to me there is more there.

I know the first time Hagar left Sarai, (Gen.16), God sent her back. But the second time (Gen.21), He did not.

Stranger