Rella ~ I am a woman
Well-Known Member
I had always thought Jesus' prayer was a future prayer, inclucive up to today.I recall taking part in a debate many years ago over whether the "them" Christ referred to were the Romans or the Jews (or both). If memory serves, the consensus was that he meant the Jews. (I took the opposite position, arguing that because Luke wrote after the Temple fell in C.E. 70, he wouldn't have included a prayer by Christ that, from all appearances, His Father declined to answer.)
But, interesting. Do you have any proof that Luke wrote after AD 70 ?