A Question for Jehovah's Witnesses

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gordon7

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Look who does not bring the truth:



1 Timothy 6:3 If any man teach otherwise, and consent not to wholesome words, even the words of our Lord Jesus Christ, and to the doctrine which is according to godliness;
4 He is proud, knowing nothing, but doting about questions and strifes of words, whereof cometh envy, strife, railings, evil surmisings,
5 Perverse disputings of men of corrupt minds, and destitute of the truth, supposing that gain is godliness: from such withdraw thyself.
 

gordon7

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Deceivers wont stop deceiving, as they themselves are deceived.

But if we look for a new earth and heavens, we are to be in all holy conversation, NOT WRESTING AGAINST EVERY WORD OF GOD, WHICH IS THE RRROR OF THE WICKED...


Psalm 56:5 Every day they wrest my words: all their thoughts are against me for evil.

2 Peter 3:13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.
14 Wherefore, beloved, seeing that ye look for such things, be diligent that ye may be found of him in peace, without spot, and blameless.
15 And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you;
16 As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.
17 Ye therefore, beloved, seeing ye know these things before, beware lest ye also, being led away with the error of the wicked, fall from your own stedfastness.
18 But grow in grace, and in the knowledge of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ. To him be glory both now and for ever. Amen.
 

Runningman

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Seriously?

Genesis 1:27
27 So God created man in His own image; in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them.
"He" is singular there. The idea being conveyed there is only one God because a singular God created them.
 

RedFan

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"He" is singular there. The idea being conveyed there is only one God because a singular God created them.
I think it's important here to read both verses of Gen. 5:1-2 together with Gen 1:27. In Gen. 5:1 we see the plural form ʾĔlōhīm used. In Gen. 5:2 we see a singular verb bərā’ām. This might mean that the "creative" aspect of ʾĔlōhīm is singular.
 
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Runningman

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I think it's important here to read both verses of Gen. 5:1-2 together with Gen 1:27. In Gen. 5:1 we see the plural form ʾĔlōhīm used. In Gen. 5:2 we see a singular verb bərā’ām. This might mean that the "creative" aspect of ʾĔlōhīm is singular.
Yes you're right, but this is where it gets interesting because in Exodus 22:20 lā·’ĕ·lō·hîm, though plural, is translated to refer to a singular god.

Same thing in Judges 6:31 where Baal is ’ĕ·lō·hîm, yet a singular god. We don't make a doctrine about Baal being a plurality of gods though.

Exodus 7:1, Moses is as ’ĕ·lō·hîm.

There are more examples and I am not trying to flood the discussion, but ’ĕ·lō·hîm doesn't necessarily imply a compound being or a plurality of Gods. YHWH created alone Isaiah 44:24.
 

Rella ~ I am a woman

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God made everything and is not served by human hands. Jesus had human hands. Do the math.

There is not one person with an ounce of a brain that will say Jesus was part of creation.
Acts 17
24The God who made the world and everything in it is the Lord of heaven and earth and does not live in temples made by human hands. 25Nor is He served by human hands, as if He needed anything, because He Himself gives everyone life and breath and everything else.

There is not one person with an ounce of a brain that will say that the "man" Jesus even existed until approx 4000 years after the Holy Spirit was hovering over those waters.
Saying "Let US make man in OUR image" isn't the creation event. That's a statement about what is planned.

Agreed. More proof that it was not Adam that was being talked about.
The actual creation even was performed by YHWH, the Father.

Adam was indeed formed ( created) by God ... ( Then the Lord God formed man of dust from the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living [f]being. )
I think where you are taking a blind leap of faith is assigning specific persons to the "US" where none are stated. There is no mention of a pre-existent being known as the Word or Son of God or God the Son, Immanuel, etc in the Old Testament.
Pre-existent in the old Testament? Makes no sense for those early people had limited comprehension of what that might mean... and it would be before the time that it would be important for them to know

As John Piper said... " “Jesus was there not only before matter; he was there before time. He did not come into being; he just was.”


John 1:1: “In the beginning was the Word.” Those words “in the beginning” in Greek are identical to the first two words of the Bible: “In the beginning, God created the heavens and the earth” (Genesis 1:1). I don’t think that’s an accident.

What John is saying is that before there was any matter, before anything had been made, Jesus was. “In the beginning was the Word.” So, there at the beginning, when those things were brought into being, he was there already. That’s the point of “in the beginning.” And another confirmation that John is thinking that way is that the very next thing he tells us about Jesus’s action is everything was made through him. So, creation is in his mind as he writes the words, “in the beginning.” Jesus was there as the Son of God in the beginning.

Just because you do not understand this does not mean it was not so.

John Piper also said.... (and for the scientifically mined you should appreciate, especially if tou are a creation scientist.

Let me say it in an Einsteinian way, and then I will give you the biblical phrase for Einstein’s theory of relativity. Jesus was there not only before matter; he was there before time. Because the twentieth century brought the discovery that matter and time are coextensive. No matter, no time. Kind of a controversial thing biblically sometimes. But listen to the great doxology. Now, I don’t think the biblical writers knew the theory of relativity. They just knew truth. Jude 25:

To the only God, our Savior, through Jesus Christ our Lord, be glory, majesty, dominion, and authority, before all time and now and forever. Amen.

So, when John says, “In the beginning was the Word,” echoing Genesis 1 — the wider references to being before time is meant to communicate that before anything else was, he was. So, get the time right. He did not come into being — he just was.

Isaiah 7:14
“Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, a virgin will be with child and bear a son, and she will call His name Immanuel.”
Genesis 2
4This is the account of the heavens and the earth when they were created, in the day that the LORD God made them.

Isaiah 44
24Thus says the LORD,
your Redeemer who formed you from the womb:
“I am the LORD,
who has made all things,
who alone stretched out the heavens,
who by Myself spread out the earth,
Therefore... the Godhead IS ONE.......

The term Godhead is found three times in the King James Version: ACTS 17:29. ROMANS 1:20, AND COLOSIANS 2:9.. In each of the three verses, a slightly different Greek word is used, but the definition of each is the same: “deity” or “divine nature.” The word Godhead is used to refer to God’s essential nature.

It is the use in Colossians 2:9 that is what should always be in mind when reading your Genesis 2 and Isaiah 44... It is here where

Colossians 2:9 shows one of the clearest statements of the deity of Christ anywhere in the Bible: “In him ...Christ... dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.”Nasb95
"For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily." KJV
"For all The Fullness of The Deity dwells in him bodily." Peshitta
theotētos
" For in him dwells all the fullness of the deity bodily." Greek interlinear

The word for “Godhead” here is theotés. According to this verse, Jesus Christ is God Incarnate. He embodies all (“the fulness”) of God (For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form,). This truth aligns perfectly with Colossians 1:19, “God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in him [Christ].”

Because the Godhead dwells bodily in Christ, Jesus could rightly claim that He and the Father are “one” (John 10:30). Because the fullness of God’s divine essence is present in the Son of God, Jesus could say to Philip, “Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father” (John 14:9).

In summary, the Godhead is the essence of the Divine Being; the Godhead is the one and only Deity. Jesus, the incarnate Godhead, entered our world and showed us exactly who God is: “No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known” (John 1:18; cf. Hebrews 1:3).
 

RedFan

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It is the use in Colossians 2:9 that is what should always be in mind when reading your Genesis 2 and Isaiah 44... It is here where

Colossians 2:9 shows one of the clearest statements of the deity of Christ anywhere in the Bible: “In him ...Christ... dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.”Nasb95
"For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily." KJV
"For all The Fullness of The Deity dwells in him bodily." Peshitta
theotētos
" For in him dwells all the fullness of the deity bodily." Greek interlinear
None of this could apply before the Son became incarnate, for until then he had no body in which the fullness of God could dwell "bodily." Prior to his incarnation the pre-existent Son was already part of the "Godhead" (as you put it), and as the Word of God he was God (as John 1:1 put it). The notion of God "dwelling" in himself is a bit strained, and I think unnecessary to make sense out of Col. 2:9, which I see as Paul's present tense description of the resurrected Christ, not of the pre-incarnate Son.
 

Rella ~ I am a woman

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Are you a Young Earth Creationist?
Split

There is no doubt that Adam is in the timeframe for all YEC. We can follow the genealogies
on him.

As to the rest of creation NO.

But I will say I also am not in the 4.5 billion years that some date the earth, and certainly not the 13.8 billion for the big bang.... though I can see a certain validity for God having set things in motion and for things expanding. But not being a scientist I am taking a wait and see on that.

When I read creation in the Peshitta Genesis1

1 In the beginning God created the Heavens and the Earth.

This can cover every single contingency that any Christian or Scientist could come up with, unless there is no belief in God, or an outward denial of creation.

The rub comes with determining when the beginning was and if , as I suspect,
it came well before a 6th day that most claim means it all happened in 144 continuous hours

2. The Earth was chaos and empty and darkness on the faces of the depths and the Spirit of God hovered on the faces of the waters.

So complete order came in that 144 hours, inclusive of life and grown plants and trees and light entering into the creation story ... TWICE
3And God said, “The light shall be”, and the light was. 4And God saw the light that it is beautiful and God separated between the light unto the darkness. 5And God called the light the day, and the darkness he called the night, and it was evening and it was dawn, day one.

72nhours later rinse and repeat?????/

14And God said, “Lights shall be in the firmament of Heaven to distinguish between daytime and night and they shall be for signs and for times and for days and for years: 15And they shall be giving light in the firmament of Heaven to give light on the Earth”, and it was in this way. 16And God made two great lights: a great light for a ruler of daytime, and one little light for a ruler of the night, and the stars. 17And God gave them in the firmament of Heaven to give light on the Earth, 18And to rule by day and by night and to separate between the light unto the darkness, and God saw that it was good. 19And it was evening, and it was dawn, day fourth.

Lights in the heavens a day 4 and on day one light... both were to separate day and night.

And with Genesis 1 from the dead sea scrolls saying for day 1 the first day. and day 4 it reads a fourth day. ... ( not "the" fourth day) .... there is just so much I see time passing between these creation period days, once they finally got started.

OK.. I have bored you long enough. It is a question that does not have a simple answer to me.
 

RedFan

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There is no doubt that Adam is in the timeframe for all YEC. We can follow the genealogies
on him.
Speaking of genealogies, have you noticed that Joseph’s lineage is traced from David through Solomon in Matt. 1:6, but through Nathan in Luke 3:31? They can't both be right.
 

Rita

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Just a friendly reminder to those on this thread who think it’s okay to discuss the trinity
 

Rella ~ I am a woman

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Speaking of genealogies, have you noticed that Joseph’s lineage is traced from David through Solomon in Matt. 1:6, but through Nathan in Luke 3:31? They can't both be right.
I was always told the lineage in Luke was Mary's???

https://www.learnthebible.org › q-a-genealogy-of-jesus-through-mary.htm

The Genealogy of Jesus Through Mary - LearnTheBible.org

The genealogy of Matthew deals with the official line and the legal right of Jesus to be King of the Jews through Joseph His supposed father. This would satisfy the Jewish traditions. However, Luke gives His right to reign in God's eyes through Mary who provides His human nature.

Got questions says


It is common knowledge that the genealogies contained in Matthew and Luke differ. Most conservative Bible commentators explain the difference by holding that Jesus’ genealogy in Matthew 1:1–16 is traced through Joseph’s line to show Jesus’ royal right to the Davidic throne; correspondingly, the genealogy in Luke 3:23–38 traces Jesus’ ancestry through Mary’s line. This means that Mary’s lineage is recorded in the Gospel of Luke.

Mary’s lineage, as recorded by Luke, does not mention Mary, but that’s to be expected—including women’s names in genealogies was not standard practice. It begins this way: “[Jesus] was the son, so it was thought, of Joseph, the son of Heli” (Luke 3:23). This comment affirms the truth of Jesus’ virgin birth (see Luke 1:29–38). Joseph was a “son” of Heli by virtue of his marriage to Mary, who would have been the daughter of Heli (Matthew 1:16 lists Joseph’s biological father as Jacob).

Is Mary’s lineage in one of the Gospels?​

Here is the comment of Ryrie in the “Ryrie Study Bible.”
The genealogy in Matt. 1:1f is traced through Joseph, Jesus’ legal (though not natural) father, and it establishes His claim and right to the throne of David (v. 6). The genealogy in Luke 3:23-38 is evidently that of Mary, though some believe it is also Joseph’s, by assuming that Matthan (Matt 1:15) and Matthat (Luke 3:24) were the same person and Jacob (Matt 1:16) and Eli (Luke 3:23) were brothers (one being Joseph’s father and the other his uncle). See note on Luke 3:23.

You know... I used to have a great chart comparing the two and where the difference were.

I lost it when my harddrive on last laptop erased itself.

Now I notice a large difference in searches... It seems that the common ones I used to use are no longer... Guess it is the world pulling away from Christianity?

Ill keep looking
 

Runningman

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There is not one person with an ounce of a brain that will say Jesus was part of creation.
Jesus was part of creation.

We can take John 5:26 where the Son talks about how the Father granted him to have life. So it follows that at one point or another, whether at some point pre-existing his physical birth as a human, or as a human, eventually a time came where the Father granted the Son to have life in himself. That means to say that the Son didn't always have life therefore he wasn't always alive. He didn't always literally exist except in the mind of God, the logos became flesh. If he didn't always exist, he must have been created.

John 5
26For as the Father has life in Himself, so also He has granted the Son to have life in Himself.
 

Runningman

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May I ask with whom you associate with? Just curious. Thanks. You can send me a private message if you don't want to say publicly
I associate with Biblical Unitarians. When I tell people that they sometimes think that Biblical Unitarians are Unitarian Universalists and they aren't the same thing or even remotely close to one other. So I just wanted to say that.

The Biblical Unitarians share a lot of similar beliefs with Christadelphians aside from some nuances regarding some tertiary doctrines. So that was a good guess on your part.