I have to strongly disagree with you about John 5, not only does it cover the 'future' resurrection of both the Just and unjust, it also covers the resurrection that happened at Christ's cross:
At the Cross Timing:
John 5:25
Verily, verily, I say unto you, The hour is coming, and now is, when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God: and they that hear shall live.
That was about the time of Jesus' death and resurrection, and then His preaching The Gospel to the "spirits in prison" (Matt.27:50-53; 1 Peter 3 & 4).
John 5.25 Very truly I tell you, a time is coming and has now come when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God and those who hear will live.
Yes, Jesus is speaking of his imminent ability to speak eternal life to men, which became available after his atoning death on the cross. The time has "now come," meaning imminently. His ministry had come to the cross so that he could speak eternal life to those who choose to follow him.
I have no need to bring 1 Peter 3 and 4 or Matt 27 into this. Suffice it to say that at Jesus' cross he obtained the authority to grant people eternal life.
But this says nothing about giving eternal life to the wicked who reject him, nor about the timing of their resurrection from the dead. It is primarily speaking of Jesus obtaining authority to give eternal life to his followers.
John 5. 26 For as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted the Son also to have life in himself. 27 And he has given him authority to judge because he is the Son of Man.
So in vs. 27 there is a shift from giving eternal life to the righteous to Christ's authority to bring eternal judgment to those who reject eternal life. He was given authority to judge once the authority to give eternal life had been given him. The sentence of eternal judgment comes once the offer to have eternal life has been given and has been turned down by the wicked.
John 5.28 “Do not be amazed at this, for a time is coming when all who are in their graves will hear his voice 29 and come out—those who have done what is good will rise to live, and those who have done what is evil will rise to be condemned."
So Jesus is now addressing both the righteous who accept his offer of eternal life and the wicked who reject this offer of eternal life. And he indicates both groups will be brought back to physical existence in order to receive sentencing. There is nothing about the timing of the resurrection of the wicked. Only we know the time of the resurrection of the righteous is addressed at some point as being connected to Christ's 2nd Coming.
John 5.30 By myself I can do nothing; I judge only as I hear, and my judgment is just, for I seek not to please myself but him who sent me.
This is all about Jesus referring to his authority to both save and judge, and does not identify the specific time the wicked will be raised from the dead. That reference is at some point is only to the righteous who receive eternal life, who rise up at Jesus' coming..
John 5:28-29
28 Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear His voice,
29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.
This passage does *not* address the timing of the "resurrection of damnation" for me, because Jesus is talking about when he obtains authority to grant or deny eternal life. And that was when he rose from the dead, having cancelled the bondage of death.
And Jesus is here asserting that in this new metaphorical "hour," which is the NT era, the resurrection of both groups will happen. He is not saying strictly when each group will be raised from the dead but only about the fact that they all take place in the same "hour," ie in the NT era after Jesus has obtained NT authority to render this judgment.
It is clear to me that this is a metaphorical "hour" because Jesus could not possibly have been saying that he has been given authority to judge, which was at his 1st Coming, and in the same literal hour he would raise both the righteous and the wicked! John used the same sense of a metaphorical "hour" when he said it is already the "last hour," in which the NT antichrists are arising.
1 John 2.18 Dear children, this is the last hour; and as you have heard that the antichrist is coming, even now many antichrists have come. This is how we know it is the last hour.
Which that idea is actually a 'tradition of men'. What Jesus revealed in that John 5:28-29 passage about the future resurrection on the day of His return is solid. What has you confused is the Pop doctrine that the Revelation 20:5 verse about the dead not living again until the thousand years are over is about the wicked still in graves throughout Christ's "thousand years" reign.
Rev 20.5 5 The rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were ended.) This is the first resurrection.
This isn't popular theology--it is actually what is written, as I see it.
This is why I keep reminding brethren about Paul's quoting Isaiah 25 about death swallowed up in victory, and the change to the "spiritual body" on the "last trump" (Christ's coming).
I don't even know what "change to the spiritual body" means! What is the "spiritual body" that you're referring to? Isa 25 says nothing about the "spiritual body!"
Isa 25.7 On this mountain he will destroy
the shroud that enfolds all peoples,
the sheet that covers all nations;
This is not about the "spiritual body!" This is about the recovery of those physical dead, returning their spirits to their new bodies, at the return of Christ. It is a *physical resurrection,* experienced by people from all across the earth because all have to suffer death. And this is specifically mentioned on behalf of the righteous who will benefit from this resurrection in the form of immortality. Again, there is nothing about the "spiritual body."
Christ's future reign will be a time in spirit bodies, no longer in flesh bodies. And that applies to the unsaved also. Thus the "dead" in Rev.20:5 actually means 'spiritually dead', i.e., a still liable to die soul, still subject to the "second death".
I can't agree with that as stated.
Apostle Paul covered that concept in the Greek of 1 Corinthians 15:53 with 4 different Greek terms. Our corruptible flesh must put on incorruption (spiritual body)
This is speaking of a physical resurrection to physical immortality--not a "spiritual body."
AND our 'mortal' (soul) must put on immortality.
This is saying our physical, mortal existence must attain to physical, immortal existence. This is speaking of the soul within the currently mortal body--not just the "soul." The soul is deemed "mortal" by its presence within the physical, mortal body.
2 changes is what Paul covered in the Greek, not just one. The spiritually dead during Christ's coming reign will still be liable to perish in the "lake of fire" at the end of the "thousand years", for that is what is called the "second death". They will go through Christ's reign like everyone else, but will be among the wicked "resurrection of damnation" throughout the "thousand years".
I think you're confusing the term "spiritual death" with "spirit body?" If so, I'd have to say they do not mean the same thing. To "spiritually die" means to be separated from God in our physical existence, because the soul, or human spirit, is designed to exist within a physical body. When we die, we lose our ability to existence with God in a physical plane.
The "2nd Death," or Eternal Death, has to do with a final, eternal separation from God on a physical plane. That's why lost souls are brought back into physical bodies through resurrection because ultimately that's where all human souls belong and are to be judged forever, by a physical separation or by a physical geographical union.
That is where Apostle Paul was quoting from in 1 Cor.15 about death being swallowed up in victory... This means our time in these flesh type bodies we have today will be over, all peoples will be changed to their spirit bodies on the day of Christ's return.
No, I don't think so. Not all peoples will be changed to their "spirit bodies," whatever that means?
As a matter of fact, understanding this is a very EASY way to know when the false-Messiah shows up, because if... one is still in a flesh body, then it means that Messiah which comes first will be the false-Messiah, the Antichrist. Jesus returns to destroy that false-Messiah, and that is when everyone on earth will be changed to their spirit body, including the unjust.
There is no changing everyone to a "spirit body," whatever that means? Where do you get that from? Who taught you that?
But keep in mind, I had been reading the Olivet Discourse while under the influence of Pretribism. To be honest, it never made much sense to me at that time! It was not just Pretribism that muddied the picture, however. Futurism, as well, made the passage completely impossible to understand. The passage is largely about the fall of Jerusalem in 70 AD, although the 2nd Coming is also viewed as a secondary topic.
