Lol
You can not possibly make the 2 comings of mat 24 into one.
You can try.
But you stall out , because you omit "before the flood"
Matthew 24:37 But as the days of Noe were, so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.
38 For as in the days that were before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day that Noe entered into the ark,
39 And knew not until the flood came, and took them all away; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.
I'm not entirely certain how you are applying these things in these verses, but it seems rather clear to me that the following should be understood like such.
But as the days of Noe were, so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.
The days of Noah included all of the following.
A) in the days that were before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage
B) And knew not until the flood came, and took them all away; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.
The coming of the Son of man occurs while they are still doing the above per A). To show what I'm trying to get at here, let's assume A) involves them doing that for 10 years, for example. Obviously, per this scenario, the coming of the Son of man doesn't begin with the beginning of this 10 years, it is instead meaning at the end of this 10 years when the coming of the Son of man occurs.
And what happens to them at the end of this 10 years? Is it not B)? Once that happens to them they are obviously no longer doing what A) records.
Per this scenario it does not make sense, that at the end of this 10 years we are at the beginning of great tribulation rather than at the end of this age. And one reason why, all of the following has to be factored in and that it makes zero sense that these things would be happening to them prior to great tribulation beginning.
Matthew 24:45 Who then is a faithful and wise servant, whom his lord hath made ruler over his household, to give them meat in due season?
46 Blessed is that servant, whom his lord when he cometh shall find so doing.
47 Verily I say unto you, That he shall make him ruler over all his goods.
Per Pretrib, shouldn't these be raptured to heaven prior to great tribulation during the coming of the Son of man? How does it make sense to apply verses 45-47 to someone that has just been raptured to heaven? These verses sound like something that happens to someone in the end of this age, and that they are then rewarded with these things, such as, shall make him ruler over all his goods, during the millennium that follows. Clearly, it makes zero sense to apply verse 47 to that of a Pretrib rapture, since this would mean the ones meant in verse 47 would be in heaven per a Pretrib scenario.
One can't argue, and expect to be taken serious, that the coming involving verses 45-47 does not occur during the coming involving verse 39, when the following verses are clearly what happens to those that verses 45-47 are not including.
Matthew 24:48 But and if that evil servant shall say in his heart, My lord delayeth his coming;
49 And shall begin to smite his fellowservants, and to eat and drink with the drunken;
50 The lord of that servant shall come in a day when he looketh not for him, and in an hour that he is not aware of,
51 And shall cut him asunder, and appoint him his portion with the hypocrites: there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.
Obviously, what happens to these above during the coming of the Son of Man is not recorded in verses 45-47, it is recorded in verse 39---and took them all away.
Maybe you are unable to follow my train of thought since others have told me in the past that I'm hard to follow at times? Or, maybe you are able to follow my train of thought, except that you disagree with my reasoning of some of these things? Regardless what the case might be, at least I'm attempting to do what you insist Post Tribbers avoid, and that is, dealing with 'before the flood'.