This passage actually refutes the foolish notion of Soul Sleep. So let's take it a step at a time.
1. Do you know that this passage is about the rapture? . . . .
So Soul Sleep is UTTERLY DEMOLISHED in this passage which you thought supported your fantasy.
No demolition at all if you understand exactly what that scripture is saying....
1 Thessalonians 4:13-18....
“But we do not want you to be uninformed, brothers, about those who are asleep, that you may not grieve as others do who have no hope. For since we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so, through Jesus, God will bring with him those who have fallen asleep. For this we declare to you by a word from the Lord, that we who are alive, who are left until the coming of the Lord, will not precede those who have fallen asleep. For the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a cry of command, with the voice of an archangel, and with the sound of the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first. Then we who are alive, who are left, will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air, and so we will always be with the Lord.” (ESV)
You left out the
inconvenient part....all sleep in death “
until the coming of the Lord”. Those who are alive when Christ returned would “
not precede those who have fallen asleep” which means that the “saints” did NOT go straight to heaven when they died, but would “sleep” until Christ returned to resurrect them.....so when was that to happen?
Interestingly, Christ’s return was not going to be obvious to many.
There is a word used by Jesus' apostles and his instructions to them concerning the time of his return.....
Matthew 24:3-6....
“As he sat on the Mount of Olives, the disciples came to him privately, saying, “Tell us, when will these things be, and what will be the sign of your coming and of the end of the age?” And Jesus answered them, “See that no one leads you astray. 5 For many will come in my name, saying, ‘I am the Christ,’ and they will lead many astray. 6 And you will hear of wars and rumors of wars. See that you are not alarmed, for this must take place, but the end is not yet.” (ESV) Then he went on to relate the features of the sign, all in evidence since the Great War of 1914. (Matthew 24:3-14)
In verse 3, Jesus' disciples were not actually asking about his "coming", but about his "presence", which is what the word "
pa·rou·siʹa" means. Someone who is present is not
coming but is already here. So in asking for a "sign of his presence", they were not asking about his
"coming (
erchomai)
on the clouds with power and great glory" because that is totally separate event...visible to all. But his "presence" which required a "sign" was not a visible event. All the features of the sign had to be fulfilled before his "coming" to judge mankind. Unless you do word studies and you keep relying on unreliable translations, you will never get the truth.
It is the same word used there in 1 Thess 4:15.
In 2 Corinthians 10:10-11 it contrasts "presence" (
pa·rou·siʹa) with "absence" (
a·ponʹtes). So it does not mean "coming" as in "not yet present". Someone's presence follows their arrival, which may not be observed. This I believe is the case with Jesus.
So, I'm sorry but your interpretation of that scripture is way off.
2. Do you also know that the metaphor of "sleep" is used for death when applied to Christians? It is applied to Stephen even though his soul and spirit went to Heaven immediately: And they stoned Stephen, calling upon God, and saying, Lord Jesus, receive my spirit. And he kneeled down, and cried with a loud voice, Lord, lay not this sin to their charge. And when he had said this, he fell asleep [died].
OK....What is the setting here...? And is this an accurate translation of the verse....?
Stephen is about to be martyred and he is given a heavenly vision.....but is the word "God" in the original manuscripts? NO! Stephen is appealing to his "Lord" Jesus.
The word "God" is not in the original, and should not have been in the translation. It is in none of the ancient [manuscripts] or versions. So how did the word “God” come to be inserted into that verse? Scholar Abiel Abbot Livermore called this “an instance of the sectarian biases of the translators.” Most modern translations, therefore, eliminate this spurious reference to God.
But did Stephen pray to Jesus? Or was he seeing his Lord in heaven with his God and Father (the holy spirit was not seen at God's left hand) and imploring him, appealing to him as the one he knew who would resurrect him? He "fell asleep" because that's what death is. No one goes anywhere. Their "sleep" is peaceful because they are unaware of anything that is happening here. (Ecclesiastes 9:5, 10)
3. Do you know that if Christ brings with Him -- FROM HEAVEN -- those who are asleep it is a reference to the souls and spirits of those who died in Christ and are now in Heaven?
Did you know that Christ has already returned to direct his disciples through all the troubling features of the sign he gave them to indicate that he was now ruling as King.....his coronation in heaven, was seen only in a vision by the prophet Daniel 2,500 years before Jesus took up his Kingship. (Daniel 7:13-14)
So from the time of his return, his elect have been raised to heaven....those who died before his coronation slept, and those who were alive at his return, did not need to sleep in death, but upon their death, were resurrected immediately to take up their positions in heaven, ready for the "marriage of the Lamb" when his complete "bride" is gathered to him. So those who died after Jesus' death, "slept" until his return, then all of the deceased elect were raised together. (Revelation 20:6)
4. Do you know why these saints come from Heaven at the Rapture? So that they may received glorified bodies and return to Heaven as bodies, souls, and spirits -- as complete persons.
I'm sorry Enoch, but I cannot find mention of that anywhere.....can you give me the biblical reference please....