In our previous post we examine our first two questions concerning when our Lord first became the begotten Son of God and how and in what manner he was the express image of the Father’s person while as a human on earth, and now as the highly exalted Lord. Returning to his image whilst as the Son of God in the flesh we should like to know,
3) How it was then that our Lord declared God to us?
The Scriptures state: “No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom (close to the Father’s heart, in close confidence) of the Father, He has declared Him.” (John 1:18)
I believe in order to better understand how our Lord declared the Father (God) unto us we must first consider the statement, “No one has seen God at any time”.
The Scriptures attest to this very fact viz., “That the King eternal is immortal (divine) and invisible (1 Tim 1:17)
…You cannot see My face; for no man shall see Me, and live.”." (Exod 33:20)
For he “dwells in unapproachable light, whom no man has seen or can see…” (1 Tim 6:16)
If Jesus is God as many of our orthodox friends insist then have not some, for example the Apostles as well as many others living at the time seen him?
In John Chapter 14 Verse 8, 9 we read where Philip asks the Lord, “Lord, show us the Father, and it is sufficient for us.”
In response our Lord states:
“Have I been with you so long, and yet you have not known Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; so how can you say, ‘Show us the Father’?
Our Trinity friends say: The phrase "he who has seen me has seen the Father" refers to the works of the Father being seen in the words and deeds of Jesus Christ, who is God in flesh. They say Verses 10 and 11 support this thought.
“Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works. Believe Me that I am in the Father and the Father in Me, or else believe Me for the sake of the works themselves.”
Obviously, the Lord’s glory must have been veiled from the sight of men while he was in the flesh, they suggest.
Although we agree with the first part of the statement that the Father is seen through the words and deeds of our Lord, we do not agree with the erroneous suggestion that Jesus is literally God in the flesh.
So, what then did our Lord mean by the statement, “I am in the Father, and the Father in Me?”
“First of all, the Lord was not suggesting in any way that he was the Father Himself, for this he had distinctly disclaimed repeatedly, telling them that the Father was greater, and that the works which he did were done by the Father's power.
No, what He wanted them to understand here was the unity which subsisted between the Father and himself. His will was buried into the Father's will. “Not my will but thy will be done”. He would have no other. His words and works fully and completely represented the Father.
If the Father would show himself to humanity, it could only be either by miraculously opening man's eyes to discern the spiritual glory (thus exposing man to death), or else by God's manifesting himself in "a body of flesh" in such a manner that men could discern something of his character by contact and intercourse.
As it was impossible for the Lord's followers to actually see God, the only way in which they could see God was in the representative sense, through our Lord Jesus, who was "God manifest in the flesh." (1 Tim. 3:16) The Spirit of the Father (the holy spirit, the holy disposition) was manifest (rendered apparent) in Jesus.
The man Christ Jesus was the perfect representation of the Heavenly Father, so that he who saw the Son, who was the express image of the Father's person, saw the Father also. In seeing Jesus, they saw the most that was possible to be seen of the divine character--its likeness, its perfect image in flesh. "He that hath seen me hath seen the Father." Jesus revealed or caused his disciples to see the Father by making known his character in himself, revealing him by words and deeds as the God of Love.” (Comments edited)
It was in this way that that our Lord declared God to us.
3) How it was then that our Lord declared God to us?
The Scriptures state: “No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom (close to the Father’s heart, in close confidence) of the Father, He has declared Him.” (John 1:18)
I believe in order to better understand how our Lord declared the Father (God) unto us we must first consider the statement, “No one has seen God at any time”.
The Scriptures attest to this very fact viz., “That the King eternal is immortal (divine) and invisible (1 Tim 1:17)
…You cannot see My face; for no man shall see Me, and live.”." (Exod 33:20)
For he “dwells in unapproachable light, whom no man has seen or can see…” (1 Tim 6:16)
If Jesus is God as many of our orthodox friends insist then have not some, for example the Apostles as well as many others living at the time seen him?
In John Chapter 14 Verse 8, 9 we read where Philip asks the Lord, “Lord, show us the Father, and it is sufficient for us.”
In response our Lord states:
“Have I been with you so long, and yet you have not known Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; so how can you say, ‘Show us the Father’?
Our Trinity friends say: The phrase "he who has seen me has seen the Father" refers to the works of the Father being seen in the words and deeds of Jesus Christ, who is God in flesh. They say Verses 10 and 11 support this thought.
“Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works. Believe Me that I am in the Father and the Father in Me, or else believe Me for the sake of the works themselves.”
Obviously, the Lord’s glory must have been veiled from the sight of men while he was in the flesh, they suggest.
Although we agree with the first part of the statement that the Father is seen through the words and deeds of our Lord, we do not agree with the erroneous suggestion that Jesus is literally God in the flesh.
So, what then did our Lord mean by the statement, “I am in the Father, and the Father in Me?”
“First of all, the Lord was not suggesting in any way that he was the Father Himself, for this he had distinctly disclaimed repeatedly, telling them that the Father was greater, and that the works which he did were done by the Father's power.
No, what He wanted them to understand here was the unity which subsisted between the Father and himself. His will was buried into the Father's will. “Not my will but thy will be done”. He would have no other. His words and works fully and completely represented the Father.
If the Father would show himself to humanity, it could only be either by miraculously opening man's eyes to discern the spiritual glory (thus exposing man to death), or else by God's manifesting himself in "a body of flesh" in such a manner that men could discern something of his character by contact and intercourse.
As it was impossible for the Lord's followers to actually see God, the only way in which they could see God was in the representative sense, through our Lord Jesus, who was "God manifest in the flesh." (1 Tim. 3:16) The Spirit of the Father (the holy spirit, the holy disposition) was manifest (rendered apparent) in Jesus.
The man Christ Jesus was the perfect representation of the Heavenly Father, so that he who saw the Son, who was the express image of the Father's person, saw the Father also. In seeing Jesus, they saw the most that was possible to be seen of the divine character--its likeness, its perfect image in flesh. "He that hath seen me hath seen the Father." Jesus revealed or caused his disciples to see the Father by making known his character in himself, revealing him by words and deeds as the God of Love.” (Comments edited)
It was in this way that that our Lord declared God to us.
