Is God Insincere With The Gospel Offer?

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ByGraceThroughFaith

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Is God Insincere With The Gospel Offer?

“And He said to them, “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature” (Mark 16:15)

The phrase, “παση τη κτισει”, means, “to every creature”. The use of the singular, “παση” is important, as it means that the Gospel Message is not simply a “general” one, but to “every” human being!. This is exactly what the Apostle Paul says in Colossians 1:23, “if indeed you continue in the faith, grounded and steadfast, and are not moved away from the hope of the Gospel which you heard, which was preached to every creature under heaven, of which I, Paul, became a minister”

There are some who will argue from their theology, that all this means, is, that initially the Gospel Message was intended for the Jews only, and thereafter to the Gentiles also. However, while this is true, this does not mean that there is any “limitation” on who the Gospel was to be preached to. The entire world consists of just two groups, Jews and Gentiles. If you were the one, then you were not the other. But, this is the sum-total of the entire human race, and not the “majority”, or any other distinction.

What is The Gospel Message that we are to proclaim to the entire human race? Paul tells us this in 1 Corinthians 15:

“Moreover, brethren, I declare to you the Gospel which I preached to you... For I delivered to you first of all that which I also received: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, and that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures” (1, 3, 4)

Here it is very clear, that the Gospel Message that we are to proclaim to the entire world, is, “Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, and that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures”

The Gospel Message is a universal one, to be proclaimed to not just some select groups, but to the entire human race, as the Bible clearly tells us. It is important to not what this Message consists of Biblically. “that Christ died for our sins”. It is clear from this, that the OUR must include the entire human race that this Gospel Message is to be proclaimed to. There is nothing here to suggest that it is only for the “elect”! Paul says in verse 11, “Therefore, whether it was I or they, so we preach and so you believed”. That this Message had to be “believed” in, “by which you are also saved” (verse 2). In Acts chapter 13 we read of Paul’s preaching the Gospel to some Jews, “Then Paul and Barnabas grew bold and said, “It was necessary that the word of God should be spoken to you first; but since you reject it, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, behold, we turn to the Gentiles” (v.46). These Jews “rejected” this Gospel Message, and “considered themselves unworthy of eternal life”, not what God “considered”. Here we have the two groups, the Jews, and the Gentiles (non Jews), who are the entire human race.

It is the One Gospel Message of Salvation from sins in the Lord Jesus Christ, that is to be proclaimed to the entire human race. There is no indication that this Message is to be proclaimed to any “select” few, as some falsely teach. This Gospel, Good News, is only that of Salvation, and not of damnation, which is not really “Good News” for anyone. If, as some suppose, that the Gospel of Salvation is intended for the “elect” only, then why does the Lord Jesus Christ, the Apostle Paul, and others, use universal language, which is clearly for the entire human race? Paul is very clear of this in Romans 11:32, “For God has shut up all in disobedience, so that He may show mercy to all”. God has “concluded” that the entire human race (τους παντας) is guilty of “disobedience”, the very sin that Adam and Eve were guilty of. Again, contextually we read of the Jews and Gentiles, which, as we know, are the sum-total of the human race. There is no exception. Paul then goes on to say, “that He may show mercy to all”. Notice that the Greek here is identical to the first part, “τους παντας”. This does not teach universal salvation, which is very clear from Paul’s use of “ελεηση”, which is in the subjunctive mood, “MIGHT (not WILL) show mercy”. The sinner must “repent and believe in the Gospel” (Mark 1:15), before they can be saved, as these are the two “conditions” that God has placed for any sinners salvation.

If the Gospel Message is universal, as the Bible clearly teaches, then, it must mean that the Death of Jesus Christ is also universal, as Paul has told us what this Gospel is, “that Christ died for our sins”, which is clearly universal! To suggest otherwise, is to say that God is insincere, when He commands “that the Christ would suffer and rise from the dead on the third day, and that repentance for forgiveness of sins would be proclaimed in His name to all the nations (παντα τα εθνη), beginning from Jerusalem” (Luke 24:46-47) Both the Jews and the Gentiles, the entire human race!

“He who believes in the Son has everlasting life; and he who does not believe the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him” (John 3:36)
 

farouk

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Is God Insincere With The Gospel Offer?

“And He said to them, “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature” (Mark 16:15)

The phrase, “παση τη κτισει”, means, “to every creature”. The use of the singular, “παση” is important, as it means that the Gospel Message is not simply a “general” one, but to “every” human being!. This is exactly what the Apostle Paul says in Colossians 1:23, “if indeed you continue in the faith, grounded and steadfast, and are not moved away from the hope of the Gospel which you heard, which was preached to every creature under heaven, of which I, Paul, became a minister”

There are some who will argue from their theology, that all this means, is, that initially the Gospel Message was intended for the Jews only, and thereafter to the Gentiles also. However, while this is true, this does not mean that there is any “limitation” on who the Gospel was to be preached to. The entire world consists of just two groups, Jews and Gentiles. If you were the one, then you were not the other. But, this is the sum-total of the entire human race, and not the “majority”, or any other distinction.

What is The Gospel Message that we are to proclaim to the entire human race? Paul tells us this in 1 Corinthians 15:

“Moreover, brethren, I declare to you the Gospel which I preached to you... For I delivered to you first of all that which I also received: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, and that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures” (1, 3, 4)

Here it is very clear, that the Gospel Message that we are to proclaim to the entire world, is, “Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, and that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures”

The Gospel Message is a universal one, to be proclaimed to not just some select groups, but to the entire human race, as the Bible clearly tells us. It is important to not what this Message consists of Biblically. “that Christ died for our sins”. It is clear from this, that the OUR must include the entire human race that this Gospel Message is to be proclaimed to. There is nothing here to suggest that it is only for the “elect”! Paul says in verse 11, “Therefore, whether it was I or they, so we preach and so you believed”. That this Message had to be “believed” in, “by which you are also saved” (verse 2). In Acts chapter 13 we read of Paul’s preaching the Gospel to some Jews, “Then Paul and Barnabas grew bold and said, “It was necessary that the word of God should be spoken to you first; but since you reject it, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, behold, we turn to the Gentiles” (v.46). These Jews “rejected” this Gospel Message, and “considered themselves unworthy of eternal life”, not what God “considered”. Here we have the two groups, the Jews, and the Gentiles (non Jews), who are the entire human race.

It is the One Gospel Message of Salvation from sins in the Lord Jesus Christ, that is to be proclaimed to the entire human race. There is no indication that this Message is to be proclaimed to any “select” few, as some falsely teach. This Gospel, Good News, is only that of Salvation, and not of damnation, which is not really “Good News” for anyone. If, as some suppose, that the Gospel of Salvation is intended for the “elect” only, then why does the Lord Jesus Christ, the Apostle Paul, and others, use universal language, which is clearly for the entire human race? Paul is very clear of this in Romans 11:32, “For God has shut up all in disobedience, so that He may show mercy to all”. God has “concluded” that the entire human race (τους παντας) is guilty of “disobedience”, the very sin that Adam and Eve were guilty of. Again, contextually we read of the Jews and Gentiles, which, as we know, are the sum-total of the human race. There is no exception. Paul then goes on to say, “that He may show mercy to all”. Notice that the Greek here is identical to the first part, “τους παντας”. This does not teach universal salvation, which is very clear from Paul’s use of “ελεηση”, which is in the subjunctive mood, “MIGHT (not WILL) show mercy”. The sinner must “repent and believe in the Gospel” (Mark 1:15), before they can be saved, as these are the two “conditions” that God has placed for any sinners salvation.

If the Gospel Message is universal, as the Bible clearly teaches, then, it must mean that the Death of Jesus Christ is also universal, as Paul has told us what this Gospel is, “that Christ died for our sins”, which is clearly universal! To suggest otherwise, is to say that God is insincere, when He commands “that the Christ would suffer and rise from the dead on the third day, and that repentance for forgiveness of sins would be proclaimed in His name to all the nations (παντα τα εθνη), beginning from Jerusalem” (Luke 24:46-47) Both the Jews and the Gentiles, the entire human race!

“He who believes in the Son has everlasting life; and he who does not believe the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him” (John 3:36)
Hi @ByGraceThroughFaith In a sense, I think 1 Corinthians 11.26 is a key: as we look back to the cross and as we look forward to His coming, meanwhile by His grace — in all this intervening period — we can keep proclaiming the Gospel to every creature, 'till He come'.
 
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ByGraceThroughFaith

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Hi @ByGraceThroughFaith In a sense, I think 1 Corinthians 11.26 is a key: as we look back to the cross and as we look forward to His coming, meanwhile by His grace — in all this intervening period — we can keep proclaiming the Gospel to every creature, 'till He come'.


Amen! The Gospel means GOOD NEWS, not that we tell people that they are hell-bound, but that In Jesus Christ, they have eternal hope!
 

GISMYS_7

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Is God Insincere With The Gospel Offer?

“And He said to them, “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature” (Mark 16:15)

The phrase, “παση τη κτισει”, means, “to every creature”. The use of the singular, “παση” is important, as it means that the Gospel Message is not simply a “general” one, but to “every” human being!. This is exactly what the Apostle Paul says in Colossians 1:23, “if indeed you continue in the faith, grounded and steadfast, and are not moved away from the hope of the Gospel which you heard, which was preached to every creature under heaven, of which I, Paul, became a minister”

There are some who will argue from their theology, that all this means, is, that initially the Gospel Message was intended for the Jews only, and thereafter to the Gentiles also. However, while this is true, this does not mean that there is any “limitation” on who the Gospel was to be preached to. The entire world consists of just two groups, Jews and Gentiles. If you were the one, then you were not the other. But, this is the sum-total of the entire human race, and not the “majority”, or any other distinction.

What is The Gospel Message that we are to proclaim to the entire human race? Paul tells us this in 1 Corinthians 15:

“Moreover, brethren, I declare to you the Gospel which I preached to you... For I delivered to you first of all that which I also received: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, and that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures” (1, 3, 4)

Here it is very clear, that the Gospel Message that we are to proclaim to the entire world, is, “Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, and that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures”

The Gospel Message is a universal one, to be proclaimed to not just some select groups, but to the entire human race, as the Bible clearly tells us. It is important to not what this Message consists of Biblically. “that Christ died for our sins”. It is clear from this, that the OUR must include the entire human race that this Gospel Message is to be proclaimed to. There is nothing here to suggest that it is only for the “elect”! Paul says in verse 11, “Therefore, whether it was I or they, so we preach and so you believed”. That this Message had to be “believed” in, “by which you are also saved” (verse 2). In Acts chapter 13 we read of Paul’s preaching the Gospel to some Jews, “Then Paul and Barnabas grew bold and said, “It was necessary that the word of God should be spoken to you first; but since you reject it, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, behold, we turn to the Gentiles” (v.46). These Jews “rejected” this Gospel Message, and “considered themselves unworthy of eternal life”, not what God “considered”. Here we have the two groups, the Jews, and the Gentiles (non Jews), who are the entire human race.

It is the One Gospel Message of Salvation from sins in the Lord Jesus Christ, that is to be proclaimed to the entire human race. There is no indication that this Message is to be proclaimed to any “select” few, as some falsely teach. This Gospel, Good News, is only that of Salvation, and not of damnation, which is not really “Good News” for anyone. If, as some suppose, that the Gospel of Salvation is intended for the “elect” only, then why does the Lord Jesus Christ, the Apostle Paul, and others, use universal language, which is clearly for the entire human race? Paul is very clear of this in Romans 11:32, “For God has shut up all in disobedience, so that He may show mercy to all”. God has “concluded” that the entire human race (τους παντας) is guilty of “disobedience”, the very sin that Adam and Eve were guilty of. Again, contextually we read of the Jews and Gentiles, which, as we know, are the sum-total of the human race. There is no exception. Paul then goes on to say, “that He may show mercy to all”. Notice that the Greek here is identical to the first part, “τους παντας”. This does not teach universal salvation, which is very clear from Paul’s use of “ελεηση”, which is in the subjunctive mood, “MIGHT (not WILL) show mercy”. The sinner must “repent and believe in the Gospel” (Mark 1:15), before they can be saved, as these are the two “conditions” that God has placed for any sinners salvation.

If the Gospel Message is universal, as the Bible clearly teaches, then, it must mean that the Death of Jesus Christ is also universal, as Paul has told us what this Gospel is, “that Christ died for our sins”, which is clearly universal! To suggest otherwise, is to say that God is insincere, when He commands “that the Christ would suffer and rise from the dead on the third day, and that repentance for forgiveness of sins would be proclaimed in His name to all the nations (παντα τα εθνη), beginning from Jerusalem” (Luke 24:46-47) Both the Jews and the Gentiles, the entire human race!

“He who believes in the Son has everlasting life; and he who does not believe the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him” (John 3:36)

Yes! Christ died for our sins”, but do you believe and accept Jesus as your Lord nd Savior
 
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quietthinker

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why the question?
The question is put for the purpose of putting a caveat on Grace. Once the caveat is established it is ratcheted up with all sorts of qualifiers and 'embellishments' ....the which men exploit to pad their clubs...you know, those in and those out!
 

TahitiRun

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Paul then goes on to say, “that He may show mercy to all”. Notice that the Greek here is identical to the first part, “τους παντας”. This does not teach universal salvation, which is very clear from Paul’s use of “ελεηση”, which is in the subjunctive mood, “MIGHT (not WILL) show mercy”.
I think "will show mercy" is really the better translation for the purpose clause. Although the verb is in the subjunctive mood, potentiality or possibility of God showing mercy to all is really not being called into question. The emphasis of the clause is to answer the question as to why God has concluded all in unbelief. And, the answer is: so that God will have mercy upon all. Not that He might or could have mercy, but rather that He will have mercy on the unbelief of all. Both of the Jew and Gentile alike.

I think the reason Paul uses the verb (Gk: ελεηση) in the aorist tense/subjunctive mood is because the event, from Paul's vantage point, has not yet occurred in time and is therefore not a statement of fact (ie: non-indicative). Consequently, the aorist tense is being viewed like a futuristic "snapshot" in time with certainty, though it's yet to have happened.

Anyway, just my thoughts here.
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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I think "will show mercy" is really the better translation for the purpose clause. Although the verb is in the subjunctive mood, potentiality or possibility of God showing mercy to all is really not being called into question. The emphasis of the clause is to answer the question as to why God has concluded all in unbelief. And, the answer is: so that God will have mercy upon all. Not that He might or could have mercy, but rather that He will have mercy on the unbelief of all. Both of the Jew and Gentile alike.

I think the reason Paul uses the verb (Gk: ελεηση) in the aorist tense/subjunctive mood is because the event, from Paul's vantage point, has not yet occurred in time and is therefore not a statement of fact (ie: not indicative). Consequently, the aorist tense is being viewed like a futuristic "snapshot" in time with certainty, though it's yet to have happened.

Anyway, just my thoughts here.

Clearly the subjunctive is used to show that God's Mercy is available to all, but that He has conditions on how His Mercy is obtained, which is, that the sinner must first "repent of their sins, and believe in the Gospel". God will not have Mercy on unbelievers, as John 3:18, 36, for example shows.

I don't think that the aorist make any difference here
 

TahitiRun

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Clearly the subjunctive is used to show that God's Mercy is available to all, but that He has conditions on how His Mercy is obtained, which is, that the sinner must first "repent of their sins, and believe in the Gospel". God will not have Mercy on unbelievers, as John 3:18, 36, for example shows.

I don't think that the aorist make any difference here
Ask yourself: Was there ever a time when you did not believe the Gospel? We could also use Paul as an example here too. Paul, when these words were spoken, was an unbeliever (aka: Saul).

And the text's you've given specifically state the following, concerning Paul, and all like him:

Joh 3:18 he who is believing in him is not judged, but he who is not believing hath been judged already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

Joh 3:36 he who is believing in the Son, hath life age-during; and he who is not believing the Son, shall not see life, but the wrath of God doth remain upon him.'

How do you reconcile both these statements of fact, (both the verbs "judged" and "see" are in the Greek indicative mood), with your doctrine?
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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Ask yourself: Was there ever a time when you did not believe the Gospel? We could also use Paul as an example here too. Paul, when these words were spoken, was an unbeliever (aka: Saul).

And the text's you've given specifically state the following, concerning Paul, and all like him:

Joh 3:18 he who is believing in him is not judged, but he who is not believing hath been judged already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

Joh 3:36 he who is believing in the Son, hath life age-during; and he who is not believing the Son, shall not see life, but the wrath of God doth remain upon him.'

How do you reconcile both these statements of fact, (both the verbs "judged" and "see" are in the Greek indicative mood), with your doctrine?

I don't see how you think that these verses in John, will not agree with what I believe?

both 3:18 and 3:36, are dealing with matter-of-fact. the unbeliever, because of their unbelief are already "judged", because they are not believers, which is the condition in verse 16, "whosoever believes in Him".
 

TahitiRun

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Clearly the subjunctive is used to show that God's Mercy is available to all....
That's really not the force of the clause though. It's not the availability of Mercy that's in question or being answered, but rather what God does, or will do (ie: Gk voice: active) to those He's concluded (lit: shut together) in unbelief.
 

TahitiRun

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I don't see how you think that these verses in John, will not agree with what I believe?

both 3:18 and 3:36, are dealing with matter-of-fact. the unbeliever, because of their unbelief are already "judged", because they are not believers, which is the condition in verse 16, "whosoever believes in Him".
But this answer doesn't really answer the text.
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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That's really not the force of the clause though. It's not the availability of Mercy that's in question or being answered, but rather what God does, or will do (ie: Gk voice: active) to those He's concluded (lit: shut together) in unbelief.

Paul is talking about the EXTENT of God's Mercy, which is only available on repenting and faith. The condition is placed on the sinner receiving God's Mercy
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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But this answer doesn't really answer the text.

most certainly does. You are trying to force the grammar to suit your theology, rather than accedpt what it actually says. The CONDITION for salvation in John 3:16, is BELIEF in Jesus Christ. The REJECTION of this UNBELIEF and RESULTS in condemnation. I see no problem with either the grammar ot theology!
 

TahitiRun

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Paul is talking about the EXTENT of God's Mercy, which is only available on repenting and faith. The condition is placed on the sinner receiving God's Mercy
I would agree that the extent of God's mercy is "to all". That is clearly defined in the text.

And the only condition for God's mercy is to have been concluded in unbelief, as odd as that may sound, which is clearly stated in the proceeding clause. And then Paul summarizes this amazing text for us, here:

Rom 11:33 O depth of riches, and wisdom and knowledge of God! how unsearchable His judgments, and untraceable His ways!
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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I would agree that the extent of God's mercy is "to all". That is clearly defined in the text.

And the only condition for God's mercy is to have been concluded in unbelief, as odd as that may sound, which is clearly stated in the proceeding clause. And then Paul summarizes this amazing text for us, here:

Rom 11:33 O depth of riches, and wisdom and knowledge of God! how unsearchable His judgments, and untraceable His ways!

in #7 you said that the subjunctive should be translated as "will have Mercy". But here we have the second "τοὺς πάντας", that corresponds with the first "τοὺς πάντας", taken in themselves can lead to universal salvation. The use of the conditional "ἐλεήσῃ", removes this conclusion, as it requires something from the second class of "τοὺς πάντας". in 5:19, some assume universal salvation, " For as by one man's disobedience many (οἱ πολλοί) were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many (οἱ πολλοί) be made righteous". But this is wrong, as the second use of "οἱ πολλοί", is for the purpose oof renewed mention of "πολλοί". Verse 17 is the clue, "For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ". They must RECEIVE what God has Given!
 

TahitiRun

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most certainly does. You are trying to force the grammar to suit your theology, rather than accedpt what it actually says. The CONDITION for salvation in John 3:16, is BELIEF in Jesus Christ. The REJECTION of this UNBELIEF and RESULTS in condemnation. I see no problem with either the grammar ot theology!
I'm simply reading the text as it's been stated/written by Jesus and John. It states unequivocally that the unbeliever has been judged already (past tense) and will not see life (future tense). Both are statements of fact. There is no getting around this, unless of course you do not believe that the text's are true.

There is a simple explanation, however. The judgment, and not seeing life, is against our flesh. Not our spirit.
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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I'm simply reading the text as it's been stated/written by Jesus and John. It states unequivocally that the unbeliever has been judged already (past tense) and will not see life (future tense). Both are statements of fact. There is no getting around this, unless of course you do not believe that the text's are true.

There is a simple explanation, however. The judgment, and not seeing life, is against our flesh. Not our spirit.

God is not bound by time. Grammar is for our benefit not the Word of God
 

TahitiRun

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in #7 you said that the subjunctive should be translated as "will have Mercy". But here we have the second "τοὺς πάντας", that corresponds with the first "τοὺς πάντας", taken in themselves can lead to universal salvation. The use of the conditional "ἐλεήσῃ", removes this conclusion, as it requires something from the second class of "τοὺς πάντας". in 5:19, some assume universal salvation, " For as by one man's disobedience many (οἱ πολλοί) were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many (οἱ πολλοί) be made righteous". But this is wrong, as the second use of "οἱ πολλοί", is for the purpose oof renewed mention of "πολλοί". Verse 17 is the clue, "For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ". They must RECEIVE what God has Given!
There is really too much to unpack here or respond to. This is better suited for a UR thread in the unorthodox theology department. So I won't do it here.