Amen! In the Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, the Greek word for justified "dikaioo" #1344 is:
1. to render righteous or such he ought to be
2. to show, exhibit, evince, one to be righteous, such as he is and wishes himself to be considered
3. to declare, pronounce, one to be just, righteous, or such as he ought to be
G1344 - dikaioō - Strong's Greek Lexicon (kjv)
Romans 4:2 - For if Abraham was justified (accounted as righteous) by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it (faith, not works) was accounted to him for righteousness.
James 2:21 - Was not Abraham our father justified (shown to be righteous) by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar?
If James is saying that Abraham was "accounted as righteous" by works, then Paul and James are in contradiction to one another, but there are no contradictions in God's Word. The harmony of Romans 4:2-3 and James 2:21 is seen in the differing ways that Paul and James use the term "justified." Paul, when he uses the term, refers to the legal (judicial) act of God by which He accounts the sinner as righteous. James, however is using the term to describe those who would show the genuineness of their faith by the works that they do.
James is discussing the evidence of faith (says-claims to have faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works - James 2:14-18) and not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God. (Romans 4:2-3) Works bear out the justification that already came by faith.
James 2:24 - You see then that a man is justified (shown to be righteous) by works, and not by faith only, which is an empty profession of faith/dead faith that remains "alone" - barren of works (which is not salvic faith). James 2:14 - What use is it, my brethren, if someone says/claims (key word) he has faith but he has no works? Can that faith save him? That is not genuine faith, but a bare profession of faith. Works-salvationists just cannot seem to grasp this.
It is through faith "in Christ alone" (and not based on the merits of our works) that we are justified on account of Christ (Romans 3:24; 5:1; 5:9); yet the faith that justifies does not remain alone (unfruitful, barren) if it is genuine. (James 2:14-24). *Perfect Harmony*
The same Greek word dikaioō (for the English word justified) is used for both James 2:24, and Romans 3:28. There is only ONE English word “justified” referring to both faith and works in James 2:24, and this same word is used in Romans 3:28 to talk about being justified by faith (Which is a salvation issue). So you are not being consistent with the word here. You are either ignoring this point willfully (hoping nobody will catch it), or you are not reading the point that I made, or it is a spiritual darkness that has covered over your eyes like a veil.
For if James 2:24 is talking about “justified” as being non-salvific, then you must believe James is also referring to a type of justification by faith that is non-salvific, too. Why? Because James is using the same word “justified” for both faith and works in the same verse. So then you must read Romans 3:28 as being non-salvific if you believe James 2:24 is non-salvific when using the same word justified. So you and your Protestant promoters have not really explained away this contradiction or problem.