I will raise them on the last day.

[Spiritual Israelite]

Why, since that could support Amil? How can the 7th day bbe meaning never ending if the 7th day is the end of something, not the continuation of something? The text plainly tells us what he rested from. His rest has to do with the previous 6 days. And besides, how can there be a new day during the 7th day? A new day day follows the 7th day, not parallels.

In the event I wasn't entirely per that post of my you are addressing, I then submitted what I said it in this post to Chatgpt. He then polished it for me, so to speak, therefore, the following below basically expressing what I was meaning. Still my thoughts, still my meaning. The difference being, Chatgpt is obviously a better writer than I am or could ever be.

Chatgpt's polished version of what I was meaning in post #195
------
Right — and that’s exactly the issue. The Amillennial view collapses the millennium into the present church age, but that destroys the prophetic pattern established from the very beginning.

From Genesis, God gave us the model of His redemptive timeline in the *creation week*. Six days of work, one day of rest. That’s not random — it’s a shadow of the full scope of human history.

If, as Psalm 90:4 and 2 Peter 3:8 suggest, *“a day with the Lord is as a thousand years,”* then the pattern naturally points to six “days” (6,000 years) of human toil and conflict, followed by a seventh “day” — the millennial Sabbath rest, when Christ reigns and creation finally rests (Hebrews 4:9-11, Revelation 20:1–6).

But the Amillennial framework disrupts that pattern entirely. It’s like saying God rested on the seventh day *while* He was still creating on days five and six. There’s no logical or scriptural precedent for that. The rest follows the labor — it doesn’t coincide with it.

In short, if the millennium represents the Sabbath rest of human history, it can’t be happening *during* the current “work week.” It has to come *after* — as the literal thousand-year reign of Christ on earth, after His return, when history finally enters God’s Sabbath rest.

Why are you not taking 2 Peter 3:8 in context? You are being reckless with scripture. The context of 2 Peter 3:8 is not in relation to the duration of earth's history, but rather in relation to whether or not someone can claim that the Lord is being slow to fulfill the promise of His second coming. Since there is no difference between a day and a thousand years from His eternal perspective, no one can say He is being slow to return no matter how long it takes. That is the context of 2 Peter 3:8. You are taking the verse completely out of context because of your extreme doctrinal bias.

It's very clear to me that Premils have become desperate at this point. They have apparently given up on trying to make coherent arguments using scripture to back up their belief and are resorting to making things up and taking scriptures completely out of context to try to support their doctrine.

 

[Davidpt]

Notice that Adam fell short by 70 years

Yes, I have noticed that myself. Of course though, if one is not even factoring 1K day years in here, like Amils are not factoring in, they likely never noticed it to begin with. In the prophets all of the following involve 70 years. Does your point have anything to do with any of those passages, maybe indirectly?

Isaiah 23:15 And it shall come to pass in that day, that Tyre shall be forgotten seventy years, according to the days of one king: after the end of seventy years shall Tyre sing as an harlot.

Isaiah 23:17 And it shall come to pass after the end of seventy years, that the LORD will visit Tyre, and she shall turn to her hire, and shall commit fornication with all the kingdoms of the world upon the face of the earth.

Jeremiah 25:11 And this whole land shall be a desolation, and an astonishment; and these nations shall serve the king of Babylon seventy years.

Jeremiah 25:12 And it shall come to pass, when seventy years are accomplished, that I will punish the king of Babylon, and that nation, saith the LORD, for their iniquity, and the land of the Chaldeans, and will make it perpetual desolations.

Jeremiah 29:10 For thus saith the LORD, That after seventy years be accomplished at Babylon I will visit you, and perform my good word toward you, in causing you to return to this place.

Daniel 9:2 In the first year of his reign I Daniel understood by books the number of the years, whereof the word of the LORD came to Jeremiah the prophet, that he would accomplish seventy years in the desolations of Jerusalem.

Zechariah 7:5 Speak unto all the people of the land, and to the priests, saying, When ye fasted and mourned in the fifth and seventh month, even those seventy years, did ye at all fast unto me, even to me?

 

[Davidpt]

Show me where scripture itself teaches that there will be 7 thousand years of human history. You Premils make all these claims that are not taught anywhere in scripture. Why? Are you unable to provide any clear scriptures to back up your Premil belief? Why are you always resorting to these farfetched things to try to support your belief? To me, it's just an admission that you know that Premil is not taught in scripture, but you just believe what you want to believe and you will support it any way you can, including with this unbiblical nonsense about "7K years of human history".

IOW, there is no such thing as ever logically deducing something based on the evidence one is seeing? Are you able to admit, speaking of yourself, that you have never logically deduced something based on the evidence you are noting, when the texts involved never come right out and says what you are concluding?

For example, Revelation 20:4, 6. Your position is that a heavenly reign is meant here, not a literal earthly reign in the future after Christ returns. Ok then, so where does it specifically say that in those verses? I don't see anything mentioned about heaven nor earth. Therefore, both positions, and not Premil only, has to logically deduce that based on other evidence.

 

[Spiritual Israelite]

IOW, there is no such thing as ever logically deducing something based on the evidence one is seeing?

What evidence are you seeing in scripture to back up the things you're saying? Where does scripture ever speak of 7 thousand years of human history, even implicitly? Nowhere. Yet, that's something you're trying to argue. It doesn't come from scripture. You should be logically deducing things that you see in scripture. There is no scripture at all that relates history to the 7 day week. And, there's definitely no scripture which speaks of an 8th day of the week. So, that's my problem with your view. You're coming up with things from your imagination and not from scripture. If you were actually using scripture to support your points, then I would just disagree and not be as critical of what you're saying.

Are you able to admit, speaking of yourself, that you have never logically deduced something based on the evidence you are noting, when the texts involved never come right out and says what you are concluding?

For example, Revelation 20:4, 6. Your position is that a heavenly reign is meant here, not a literal earthly reign in the future after Christ returns. Ok then, so where does it specifically say that in those verses? I don't see anything mentioned about heaven nor earth. Therefore, both positions, and not Premil only, has to logically deduce that based on other evidence.

I use other scriptures to support my understanding of Revelation 20, as I have said and have shown many times. What scriptures support your 7 thousand year human history theory or your 8th day of the week theory?

 

[Aunty Jane]

Yes, whether or not Jesus of Nazareth is The Christ, which means GOD The Son, Immanuel God with us per Matthew 1:23 indeed IS... the point I'm making, which that written Bible Scripture YOU SHOW YOU ARE AGAINST.

As I said....you demonstrate that you are a student of theology, not Scripture because of how you present it....not as it is written and was understood by a Jewish audience (who were the ones Jesus was sent to primarily) but through the lens of Christendom, a counterfeit and fractured church system who cannot agree much on anything except what Jesus never said.

Calling Jesus “the Christ” simply means “the anointed”....so who anointed Jesus? Himself or his Father? Whose voice was heard at his baptism? His own or his Father’s? Whom did Jesus serve on earth as his “holy servant”? (Acts 4:27, 30) Certainly not himself. (John 7:14-16)

The unbelieving Jews REJECT Jesus of Nazareth as GOD The Son because they have been spiritually BLINDED by God like Apostle Paul taught in Romans 11.

If you read John 10:31-36 in a Greek interlinear, you will see exactly how the conversation went as Jesus was defending himself against those Jewish leaders....

“The Jews picked up stones again to stone him. Jesus answered them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you going to stone me?” The Jews answered him, “It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God.” [theos] Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’? [theos] If he called them gods [theos] to whom the word of God [ho theos] came—and Scripture cannot be broken— do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’[ho theos]?” (ESV)

In Greek there are no capital letters so these are added by English translators. The true God is identified by the use of the definite article “ho” because the Jews had ceased calling their God by his name but instead substituting a title “Adonai” (meaning “Lord”) So the nameless God of the Jews was identified in Greek as “ho theos”....“The (singular) God” of the Jews ( as opposed to the multitude of Greek gods who were all identified by their names). So with that fact in mind, read the Scripture as it was written....

The word “theos” (gods) as you can see, is a word that was applied even to humans by Jesus himself.

Strongs gives as its primary definition of “theos”....

1. “a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities”.

So calling anyone “theos” was not calling them “God” with a capital “G” but simply a divine one or one who had divine authority as God’s representative....Jesus was referring to the judges in Israel who judged under God’s authority.

So if you were a genuine student of God’s word, you would do your research and see for yourself if what you are being taught is really the word of God, or the misinterpreted words of misled men.

Being aware that the deceiver was going to plant a counterfeit church as “weeds among the wheat”, due diligence is required as the master deceiver is a mimic. How do we detect his counterfeit church? It might look like the real thing on the surface, but probe a little deeper and you will see the difference from the real thing. Actions speak louder than words. Look at what they do...not just what they say.

 

[Aunty Jane]

And just because a Jew CLAIMS to believe on Jesus Christ, but not as GOD The Son is an oxymoron, a lie, a contradiction of the written Bible Scriptures.

The son is a “son” because he called himself “the son of God”.....but the Scriptures also call angels “sons of God”.....the ones chosen for rulership and priesthood in the Kingdom are called “sons” by adoption, but they are also called “Christ’s brothers”. Only the Father has “sons”.....Jesus has “brothers”. (Matt 25:40)

Calling Jesus “the son of God” was always understood by the early Christians....it was later when Christendom became “the church” that Jesus was given a status that the Bible never mentions specifically.
Scripture presented to validate that status is skewed to suggest what was never written...not once.

Like Apostle John said, those who believe that Jesus of Nazareth came as 'THE CHRIST', which John was pointing to Jesus as GOD The Son by that, well those who do believe have BOTH The Father and The Son.

You see there...you just did it again...you are assuming what John meant but never said. All of the apostles believed that Jesus was the Christ, but none of them believed a blasphemy.

What did they collectively say about the status that Jesus held in their lives?

“For although there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth—as indeed there are many “gods” and many “lords”— yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.” (1 Cor 8:5-6 ESV)

You see the use of capital letters there...? These are to indicate who are not “lords or gods” in the sense that they are to be worshipped, but there are multitudes of “gods” worshipped in satan’s world.

The apostles identified only “one God the Father”.....and identified Jesus as their “one Lord”.
Calling someone “Lord” is not calling them “God” either. Sarah called Abraham “lord” but she didn’t think he was God....it is a title equivalent to calling someone “sir” in English...a term of respect.

If you were a genuine Bible student, you would know these things.

But those who DO NOT believe that Jesus of Nazareth came as THE CHRIST, IMMANUEL GOD WITH US, has NEITHER THE FATHER NOR THE SON, and is an antichrist.

When the angel told Joseph that Mary would have a son.....
“Joseph, son of David, do not fear to take Mary as your wife, for that which is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit. She will bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins.” All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had spoken by the prophet: “Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son,and they shall call his name Immanuel”(which means, God with us)”. (Matt 1:22-25 ESV)

What did this name mean...“God with us”? How was that skewed to mean what it never did?
How was God “with” his people Israel through all of their history? It was through his appointed representatives.....”gods” according to Jesus, acting under God’s authority.

But the child was not called “Immanuel”...they were instructed to call him “Jesus”, which was a common name among the Jews at that time.

According to Strongs, his name meant....”Jesus = "Jehovah is salvation".

Salvation would come firstly to the Jews who accepted Jesus as the “Christ” (anointed one) and who would understand that God was “with” his people by means of the one who was “sent” and would bring them “salvation”.
Nothing there suggests what Christendom insists is a Bible teaching.

1 John 2:22-24
22 Who is a liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son.

23 Whosoever denieth the Son, the same hath not the Father: (but) he that acknowledgeth the Son hath the Father also.

24 Let that therefore abide in you, which ye have heard from the beginning. If that which ye have heard from the beginning shall remain in you, ye also shall continue in the Son, and in the Father.
KJV

There are plenty of Bible Scriptures that declare Jesus of Nazareth as THE CHRIST, and as part of The GODHEAD. So your vanity of LIES that keep claiming the meaning of English Bible translations has all that wrong is of the devil.

The Scriptures you quote do not mean what you insist that they do, and genuine Bible study would reveal it to those not blinded by the lies promoted in satan’s false, counterfeit “Christianity”.

No one is denying that “Jesus is the Christ”...and no one is denying the Father and the Son....we just understand what the Bible actually teaches about them both. (2 Thess 1:6-8)
What if the things you have been taught are lies from the devil? Do those who are deceived, know that they are until it’s too late?

“By their fruits” Jesus said we would identify his true disciples.....what is Christendom’s “fruitage”?

They are up to their necks in their nation’s politics and bloodshed. They are so much a part of the world that they are indistinguishable from it. They have blood on their hands and hatred in their hearts for anyone who does not support what they have been taught to believe.....hell and damnation for those who dare to speak the truth....history repeats because those who do not “know the only true God and the one he sent forth” (John 17:3) will continue to emulate those who have played the devil’s game all through “Christian” history....without knowing that they have been willing puppets.....in the hands of God’s enemy.

Why are “few” found on the road to life? (Matt 7:13-14; 21-23) “There is nothing new under the sun” as Solomon said....humans fall for the same old lies. The real heretics are the ones screaming “HERESY” the loudest. We don’t need large letters to get our peaceful message across.

Jesus is the Son of God...as he said he was.

 

[Aunty Jane]

Yes I agree and know all of that I did update my post that they also died spiritually but what does Geneses chapter 5 have to do with the thousand year reign?

The human lifespan as shown in Gen 5 indicates the length of the human lifespan prior to the flood.
It is not accidental that it ended with Noah because all humankind thereafter descended from Noah’s sons.

After the flood we saw man’s lifespan continue to decrease until we reach the average even today at 70 or 80 years.... a big difference when we consider that Noah did not father children until he was 500 years old!

The aging process would have been much slower, closer to the perfection of Adam and his wife.

No one prior to the flood lived for a thousand years....which is God’s counting of a “day” to him.
So his words to Adam were true in that he did die within that “day”.

 

[David in NJ]

Yes, I have noticed that myself. Of course though, if one is not even factoring 1K day years in here, like Amils are not factoring in, they likely never noticed it to begin with. In the prophets all of the following involve 70 years. Does your point have anything to do with any of those passages, maybe indirectly?

Isaiah 23:15 And it shall come to pass in that day, that Tyre shall be forgotten seventy years, according to the days of one king: after the end of seventy years shall Tyre sing as an harlot.

Isaiah 23:17 And it shall come to pass after the end of seventy years, that the LORD will visit Tyre, and she shall turn to her hire, and shall commit fornication with all the kingdoms of the world upon the face of the earth.

Jeremiah 25:11 And this whole land shall be a desolation, and an astonishment; and these nations shall serve the king of Babylon seventy years.

Jeremiah 25:12 And it shall come to pass, when seventy years are accomplished, that I will punish the king of Babylon, and that nation, saith the LORD, for their iniquity, and the land of the Chaldeans, and will make it perpetual desolations.

Jeremiah 29:10 For thus saith the LORD, That after seventy years be accomplished at Babylon I will visit you, and perform my good word toward you, in causing you to return to this place.

Daniel 9:2 In the first year of his reign I Daniel understood by books the number of the years, whereof the word of the LORD came to Jeremiah the prophet, that he would accomplish seventy years in the desolations of Jerusalem.

Zechariah 7:5 Speak unto all the people of the land, and to the priests, saying, When ye fasted and mourned in the fifth and seventh month, even those seventy years, did ye at all fast unto me, even to me?

Daniel 9:24
“Seventy/70 weeks are determined
For your people and for your holy city,
To finish the transgression = Gospel
To make an end of sins = Gospel
To make reconciliation for iniquity = Gospel
To bring in everlasting righteousness = Gospel
To seal up vision and prophecy = Gospel to Acts to Revelation
And to anoint the Most Holy = Isaiah 11:2 , Luke 4:18 , Matt 3:13-17

GOSPEL /JESUS = Matt 18:21-22

Then Peter came to Him and said, “Lord, how often shall my brother sin against me, and I forgive him? Up to seven times?”
Jesus said to him, “I do not say to you, up to seven times, but up to 70 times 7.

 

[Aunty Jane]

Daniel 9:24
“Seventy/70 weeks are determined
For your people and for your holy city,
To finish the transgression = Gospel
To make an end of sins = Gospel
To make reconciliation for iniquity = Gospel
To bring in everlasting righteousness = Gospel
To seal up vision and prophecy = Gospel to Revelation
And to anoint the Most Holy = Isaiah 11:2 , Luke 4:18 , Matt 3:13-17

GOSPEL /JESUS = Matt 18:21-22

Then Peter came to Him and said, “Lord, how often shall my brother sin against me, and I forgive him? Up to seven times?”
Jesus said to him, “I do not say to you, up to seven times, but up to 70 times 7.

Prophecies found in the Scriptures contain a host of “typical representations” in which clues or keys are found to help us in understanding their fulfillments.

“Indeed, under the law almost everything is purified with blood, and without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness of sins. Thus it was necessary for the copies of the heavenly things to be purified with these rites, but the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than these. For Christ has entered, not into holy places made with hands, which are copies of the true things, but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God on our behalf. (Heb 9:22-24 ESV)

These typical representations may be in the nature of (1) prophetic numbers, (2) prophetic patterns, (3) prophetic symbols, (4) prophetic characters, (5) prophetic dramas or (6) prophetic places, or may comprise a combination of them.

3 The common prophetic numbers are found to be 4, 6, 7, 10, 12 and 70.

7 and 70 are often repeated.
Spiritual completeness is symbolized by the number 7.
There were seven lamps in the lampstand for the holy part of the tabernacle, emphasizing a spiritual completeness. (Ex 25:37)
The number seven was used very frequently with reference to the Levitical rules for offerings and cleansings. (Lev 14:7-8)
In the Revelation references are made to “seven congregations”, “seven golden lampstands” and “seven stars”, all of which have meanings involving spiritual completeness. (Rev 1:4, 12, 16)

We also have the number 10, which refers to earthly or visible completeness....so multiples 7x10 also have prophetic significance. There are Bible examples where this symbolic number is used.
The typical fulfillment of the procreation mandate given after the flood had its comprehensive completeness in token when 70 families had sprung from Noah. (Gen 10:1-32)
Though the Israelites had failed to keep most of the 138 sabbath years of rest due to the land, Jehovah decreed seventy years of desolation as a comprehensive completeness to offset their failures. (2 Chron 36:21)
To aid Jesus in comprehensively covering his territory in Judea he sent out seventy disciples. (Luke 10:1)

There is great significance to the numbers used repeatedly in Scripture.

 

[David in NJ]

Prophecies found in the Scriptures contain a host of “typical representations” in which clues or keys are found to help us in understanding their fulfillments.

“Indeed, under the law almost everything is purified with blood, and without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness of sins. Thus it was necessary for the copies of the heavenly things to be purified with these rites, but the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than these. For Christ has entered, not into holy places made with hands, which are copies of the true things, but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God on our behalf. (Heb 9:22-24 ESV)

These typical representations may be in the nature of (1) prophetic numbers, (2) prophetic patterns, (3) prophetic symbols, (4) prophetic characters, (5) prophetic dramas or (6) prophetic places, or may comprise a combination of them.

3 The common prophetic numbers are found to be 4, 6, 7, 10, 12 and 70.

7 and 70 are often repeated.
Spiritual completeness is symbolized by the number 7.
There were seven lamps in the lampstand for the holy part of the tabernacle, emphasizing a spiritual completeness. (Ex 25:37)
The number seven was used very frequently with reference to the Levitical rules for offerings and cleansings. (Lev 14:7-8)
In the Revelation references are made to “seven congregations”, “seven golden lampstands” and “seven stars”, all of which have meanings involving spiritual completeness. (Rev 1:4, 12, 16)

We also have the number 10, which refers to earthly or visible completeness....so multiples 7x10 also have prophetic significance. There are Bible examples where this symbolic number is used.
The typical fulfillment of the procreation mandate given after the flood had its comprehensive completeness in token when 70 families had sprung from Noah. (Gen 10:1-32)
Though the Israelites had failed to keep most of the 138 sabbath years of rest due to the land, Jehovah decreed seventy years of desolation as a comprehensive completeness to offset their failures. (2 Chron 36:21)
To aid Jesus in comprehensively covering his territory in Judea he sent out seventy disciples. (Luke 10:1)

There is great significance to the numbers used repeatedly in Scripture.

OK and................

 

[Marty fox]

The human lifespan as shown in Gen 5 indicates the length of the human lifespan prior to the flood.
It is not accidental that it ended with Noah because all humankind thereafter descended from Noah’s sons.

After the flood we saw man’s lifespan continue to decrease until we reach the average even today at 70 or 80 years.... a big difference when we consider that Noah did not father children until he was 500 years old!

The aging process would have been much slower, closer to the perfection of Adam and his wife.

No one prior to the flood lived for a thousand years....which is God’s counting of a “day” to him.
So his words to Adam were true in that he did die within that “day”.

That has nothing to do with the thousand years of Revelation

How about the many times a thousand is not a thousand in the bible?

 

[Aunty Jane]

That has nothing to do with the thousand years of Revelation

How about the many times a thousand is not a thousand in the bible?

Everything in the Bible is related....how many thousands of years did it take for Messiah to come into the world as a response to Adam’s sin? How many “days” was that to God?

How many more thousands of years has it taken for him to return?
Do we get a bit of an understanding that God is not governed by time, but he knows we are. Everything God has done to rescue mankind from sin and death has taken place in universal time, not earth time.....do you know why?

 

[Aunty Jane]

OK and................

Just explaining the significance of the numbers used in the Bible prophetically...do you have a problem with that?

 

[David in NJ]

Just explaining the significance of the numbers used in the Bible prophetically...do you have a problem with that?

No problem for- i loved it = Great Post

i was waiting for a conclusion.

 

[Aunty Jane]

No problem for- i loved it = Great Post

i was waiting for a conclusion.

Sometimes to provide information is to allow for the reader to draw their own conclusions...many Bible topics of interest have drawn a variety of conclusions as demonstrated on these boards.....it gives God an indication of where we are at, as we process these topics in various stages of our spiritual development.

Every journey begins with a first step and ends with the last. God knows how we begin our journey, and where we are at the end of it.

 

[jeffweeder]

Notice that Adam fell short by 70 years

Notice that others lived longer than he did. So this formula you have regarding 1000 years and 70 years doesn't represent what you seem to think it does.

By the way God didn't ordain 1000 years for man when he first created Man. The tree of life was always right there in the Centre of the garden for them to feast on. God immediately took that away from them as soon as they sinned, so they would not live forever in that state.

Jesus and Jesus alone has restored it for those who have faith in him......for well over a thousand years now.

 

[David in NJ]

Notice that others lived longer than he did. So this formula you have regarding 1000 years and 70 years doesn't represent what you seem to think it does.

This is what you missed from the Holy Scripture concerning Adam and Christ = 1 Cor ch15

But now Christ is risen from the dead, and has become the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep. 21For since by man came death, by Man also came the resurrection of the dead. 22For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all shall be made alive.

And so it is written, “The first man Adam became a living being.” The last Adam became a life-giving spirit.

46However, the spiritual is not first, but the natural, and afterward the spiritual. 47The first man was of the earth, made of dust; the second Man is the Lord from heaven.

the others do not count as the others were begotten from man whereas only Adam was begotten by God and the same with Christ.

IN FACT, it is ULTRA IMPORTANT what took place with the first Adam which DIRETCLY relates to the Last Adam/Christ.

 

[Marty fox]

Everything in the Bible is related....how many thousands of years did it take for Messiah to come into the world as a response to Adam’s sin? How many “days” was that to God?

How many more thousands of years has it taken for him to return?
Do we get a bit of an understanding that God is not governed by time, but he knows we are. Everything God has done to rescue mankind from sin and death has taken place in universal time, not earth time.....do you know why?

That didn't answer the question

 

[Davidpt]

How about the many times a thousand is not a thousand in the bible?

Come on, Martin. Even 100 can be figurative at times. For example---if I told you once, I told you 100 times. Does that then mean '100' can never be literal sometimes? And besides, we are talking about years here, a cardinal number followed by years. Provide at least one example in all of the Bible, where a cardinal number followed by years isn't literally meaning the amount specified.

Some random examples.

And Adam lived an hundred and thirty years, and begat a son in his own likeness, after his image; and called his name Seth:


Should we take this 130 years to mean any number we want to make it mean? Or should we take it to mean exactly what it says, 130 years?

2 Samuel 13:38 So Absalom fled, and went to Geshur, and was there three years.

Should we take this 3 years to mean any number we want to make it mean? Or should we take it to mean exactly what it says, 3 years?

Luke 2:42 And when he was twelve years old, they went up to Jerusalem after the custom of the feast.

Should we take this 12years to mean any number we want to make it mean? Or should we take it to mean exactly what it says, 12 years?

There are hundreds, probably even thousands, of more examples like this. Simply find an example or two that supports how you are reasoning a thousand years, that it is not meaning a literal thousand years. Otherwise, the entire Bible, from the OT through the NT, reveals that when a cardinal number is followed by years, it always means the amount of years specified, literally.

Therefore, that is the pattern throughout the Bible unless you can prove otherwise by providing an example or two, like I did above, where it is plainly obvious that the amount of years specified don't literally mean the amount of years specified. If you can find an example like that, that means you could be correct about the thousand years after all, since the passage/s you found and submitted support how you are reasoning a thousand years. But unless you can do that first, you have proved and have solved zero.

I'm willing to be reasonable here, but are you as well? After all, I'm willing to admit that if you can find an example or two that support how you are reasoning a thousand years, this would mean you could be correct after all, in regards to how you are reasoning the thousand years. Are you able to be reasonable in return? That if you can't find an example that supports how you are reasoning a thousand years, that you are then willing to admit that the way you are reasoning the thousand years may not be correct, since no other passage supports cardinal numbers followed by years are sometimes used figuratively, thus not meant in the literal sense.

 

[Marty fox]

Come on, Martin. Even 100 can be figurative at times. For example---if I told you once, I told you 100 times. Does that then mean '100' can never be literal sometimes? And besides, we are talking about years here, a cardinal number followed by years. Provide at least one example in all of the Bible, where a cardinal number followed by years isn't literally meaning the amount specified.

Some random examples.

And Adam lived an hundred and thirty years, and begat a son in his own likeness, after his image; and called his name Seth:


Should we take this 130 years to mean any number we want to make it mean? Or should we take it to mean exactly what it says, 130 years?

2 Samuel 13:38 So Absalom fled, and went to Geshur, and was there three years.

Should we take this 3 years to mean any number we want to make it mean? Or should we take it to mean exactly what it says, 3 years?

Luke 2:42 And when he was twelve years old, they went up to Jerusalem after the custom of the feast.

Should we take this 12years to mean any number we want to make it mean? Or should we take it to mean exactly what it says, 12 years?

There are hundreds, probably even thousands, of more examples like this. Simply find an example or two that supports how you are reasoning a thousand years, that it is not meaning a literal thousand years. Otherwise, the entire Bible, from the OT through the NT, reveals that when a cardinal number is followed by years, it always means the amount of years specified, literally.

Therefore, that is the pattern throughout the Bible unless you can prove otherwise by providing an example or two, like I did above, where it is plainly obvious that the amount of years specified don't literally mean the amount of years specified. If you can find an example like that, that means you could be correct about the thousand years after all since the passage/s you found and submitted support how you are reasoning a thousand years. But unless you can do that first, you have proved and have solved zero.

Revelation 20
4 I saw thrones on which were seated those who had been given authority to judge. And I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded because of their testimony about Jesus and because of the word of God. They[a] had not worshiped the beast or its image and had not received its mark on their foreheads or their hands. They came to life and reigned with Christ a thousand years. 5 (The rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were ended.) This is the first resurrection. 6 Blessed and holy are those who share in the first resurrection. The second death has no power over them, but they will be priests of God and of Christ and will reign with him for a thousand years.

7 When the thousand years are over, Satan will be released from his prison

Do we and Jesus only reign because satan is bound or do we and Jesus reign because Jesus is Lord of Lord and Kings of kings?

Do you think every example that you provided were all exactly years to the exact day?