Do you believe this statement: "Jesus is YHWH", Yes or No?

[shepherdsword]

Greetings shepherdsword,

Most translations and commentators accept the present tense “I am that I am”, but notice in the margin of the RV (or ASV) and RSV, an alternative is given “I will be that I will be” or “I will be what I will be”, showing that some modern scholars suggest this alternative reading. Although not popular it appears that this future tense is the correct translation.

Not only modern scholars, Tyndale also translated this in the future tense, and I also like the interesting spelling of his time and the specific spelling “I wilbe”:

Exodus 3:12-14 (Tyndale): 12 And he sayde: I wilbe with the. And this shalbe a token vnto the that I haue sent the: after that thou hast broughte the people out of Egipte, ye shall serue God vppon this mountayne. 13 Than sayde Moses vnto God: when I come vnto the childern of Israell and saye vnto them, the God of youre fathers hath sent me vnto you, ad they saye vnto me, what ys his name, what answere shall I geuethem? 14 Then sayde God vnto Moses: I wilbe what I wilbe: ad he sayde, this shalt thou saye vnto the children of Israel: I wilbe dyd send me to you.

Kind regards
Trevor

Even if we consider that valis it still doesn't subtract from the fact that Jesus is declaring himself the "I AM"

 

[HealthyShape]

Even if we consider that valis it still doesn't subtract from the fact that Jesus is declaring himself the "I AM"

The problem I see with this is that "I am", in Greek "ego eimi" is a normal part of language. It does not need to mean a reference to YHWH.

 

[TrevorHL]

Greetings again shepherdsword,

Even if we consider that valis it still doesn't subtract from the fact that Jesus is declaring himself the "I AM"

I prefer the translation "I am he", the same as in John 8:24,28 and is part of the theme of whether or not Jesus is the Christ.

Kind regards
Trevor

 

[Pet]

He who has seen Me, has seen The Father.

I and The Father are one

I lay down My life, so that I may take it up again

 

[cardiologist]

The New Testament explicitly says that Jesus is the Tetragrammaton. So, if you're a Christian, you better believe it.

 

[shepherdsword]

Greetings again shepherdsword,

I prefer the translation "I am he", the same as in John 8:24,28 and is part of the theme of whether or not Jesus is the Christ.

Kind regards
Trevor

There is no "he" in the greek text

 

[HealthyShape]

The New Testament explicitly says that Jesus is the Tetragrammaton.

Quote the verse.

 

[shepherdsword]

The problem I see with this is that "I am", in Greek "ego eimi" is a normal part of language. It does not need to mean a reference to YHWH.

I think it's clear here that this is not typical usage of "I AM". The jews understood what he was claiming and tried to stone him for it:

Jn 8:57-59
Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham? Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by

 

[HealthyShape]

I think it's clear here that this is not typical usage of "I AM". The jews understood what he was claiming and tried to stone him for it:

Jn 8:57-59
Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham? Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by

It is a possible interpretation, but not said in the verse explicitly. Greek says "ego eimi", which is not the tetragrammaton. And John even does not provide any explanation, like he does when there is some Jewish peculiarity in his text Gentile Christians would not understand.

 

[shepherdsword]

Quote the verse.

Do you believe in the deity of Christ?

 

[cardiologist]

Quote the verse.

For example, Hebrews 1, Verse 8-12:

8 But of the Son he says, “Your throne, O God, is forever and ever, the scepter of uprightness is the scepter of your kingdom. 9 You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, your God, has anointed you with the oil of gladness beyond your companions.” 10 And, “You, Lord, laid the foundation of the earth in the beginning, and the heavens are the work of your hands; 11 they will perish, but you remain; they will all wear out like a garment, 12 like a robe you will roll them up, like a garment they will be changed. But you are the same, and your years will have no end.”

Here, in context, the writer of the epistle to the Hebrews makes a comparison between the Son and the angels, and quotes passages out of the Old Testament to prove it. In the example I provided, he quotes two passages of the Psalms (Psalm 45 and Psalm 102, separated by the red And) and applies them to the Son. The second quotation is important here. He quotes from Psalm 102 Verses 25-27. But if you read the whole Psalm from the beginning, you will realise that this Psalm is actually a prayer from the Psalmist to the LORD, YHWH, the Tetragrammaton. It begins this way:

Hear my prayer, O Lord; let my cry come to you!

What is translated "Lord" here, is, in the original, יהוה, that is, YHWH. So, the inspired writer of this epistle to the Hebrews applies statements out of the Old Testament, which are references to YHWH, directly to Jesus, who is the Son.

 

[HealthyShape]

Do you believe in the deity of Christ?

Yes.

 

[shepherdsword]

It is a possible interpretation, but not said in the verse explicitly. Greek says "ego eimi", which is not the tetragrammaton. And John even does not provide any explanation, like he does when there is some Jewish peculiarity in his text Gentile Christians would not understand.

It should be very clear that Jesus was referring to himself as YHWH.
Sometimes “I AM” is a reference to the divine name (the Tetragrammaton, YHWH),
and sometimes it is not.
It depends entirely on the context and the original language.
Below is the clearest breakdown so you can see exactly when “I AM” carries divine significance.

1. The original biblical background: Exodus 3:14​

When God speaks to Moses:

Hebrew:​

אַהְיֶה אֲשֶׁר אֶהְיֶה
Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh
= “I AM WHO I AM” or “I WILL BE WHAT I WILL BE.”
Then God says:
“Say to the Israelites: Ehyeh (‘I AM’) has sent me to you.”
This revelation connects directly with the next verse:
YHWH (יהוה) — the Tetragrammaton.

So in Exodus 3:14–15:​

“I AM” → Ehyeh → directly linked to YHWH.
This is the foundation for all later discussion.

2. In the Septuagint (Greek OT), “I AM” becomes ἐγώ εἰμι (egō eimi)​

The Greek translation renders “I AM” in Exodus 3:14 as:
ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν
“I am the Being” / “I am the One who is.”
This becomes extremely important for how Jews and early Christians understood references to God.

3. In the New Testament, context determines whether “I am” is divine​

The NT uses the phrase ἐγώ εἰμι (I am) hundreds of times, often in normal, non-divine grammar (“I am hungry,” “I am a man,” etc).
But there are three categories:

Category 1: Normal speech (NOT divine)​

Examples:

• “I am a voice crying…” (John the Baptist — John 1:23)
• “I am not the Messiah”
• “I am the least of the apostles”

These have no reference to the divine name.

Category 2: Metaphorical predicates (possibly divine, depending on context)​

These are the “I am the ___” statements in John:

• “I am the bread of life”
• “I am the good shepherd”
• “I am the door”
• “I am the resurrection and the life”

These echo God’s revelation but include a predicate (“the bread,” “the door”).
They hint at divine identity, but they are not direct Tetragrammaton statements.

Category 3: Absolute “I AM” statements — NO predicate (directly divine)​

These match the style of Exodus 3:14 and the Septuagint.
Examples:

John 8:58 — the clearest case​

“Before Abraham was, I AM (ἐγώ εἰμι).”

Here, Jesus does not say “I was.”
He uses the timeless “I AM” just like Exodus 3:14 LXX.
The Jewish listeners understood this as blasphemy and tried to stone Him —
indicating they believed He was claiming the divine name.

Other absolute “I AM” passages:​

• John 8:24 — “Unless you believe that I AM, you will die in your sins.”
• John 8:28 — “Then you will know that I AM.”
• John 13:19 — “When it happens, you may believe that I AM.”

These are modeled directly on the Greek of Isaiah 40–55 (LXX), where God repeatedly says:
“ἐγώ εἰμι” = “I AM”
as a divine self-designation.

4. Conclusion: Can “I AM” be a reference to the Tetragrammaton?​

YES — when used absolutely, without a predicate.​

Like Exodus 3:14 and certain statements in Isaiah and John.

YES — when it echoes God’s covenant name (YHWH).​

NO — when it is simple grammar or part of a longer predicate.​

So the phrase can be a reference to YHWH in the right context,
but it is not automatically divine every time someone says “I am.

 

[HealthyShape]

For example, Hebrews 1, Verse 8-12:

8 But of the Son he says, “Your throne, O God, is forever and ever, the scepter of uprightness is the scepter of your kingdom. 9 You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, your God, has anointed you with the oil of gladness beyond your companions.” 10 And, “You, Lord, laid the foundation of the earth in the beginning, and the heavens are the work of your hands; 11 they will perish, but you remain; they will all wear out like a garment, 12 like a robe you will roll them up, like a garment they will be changed. But you are the same, and your years will have no end.”

Here, in context, the writer of the epistle to the Hebrews makes a comparison between the Son and the angels, and quotes passages out of the Old Testament to prove it. In the example I provided, he quotes two passages of the Psalms (Psalm 45 and Psalm 102, separated by the red And) and applies them to the Son. The second quotation is important here. He quotes from Psalm 102 Verses 25-27. But if you read the whole Psalm from the beginning, you will realise that this Psalm is actually a prayer from the Psalmist to the LORD, YHWH, the Tetragrammaton. It begins this way:

Hear my prayer, O Lord; let my cry come to you!

What is translated "Lord" here, is, in the original, יהוה, that is, YHWH. So, the inspired writer of this epistle to the Hebrews applies statements out of the Old Testament, which are references to YHWH, directly to Jesus, who is the Son.

So, not explicitly, but you need to explain it quite a lot and move your finger through various verses.

 

[HealthyShape]

It should be very clear that Jesus was referring to himself as YHWH.
Sometimes “I AM” is a reference to the divine name (the Tetragrammaton, YHWH),
and sometimes it is not.
It depends entirely on the context and the original language.
Below is the clearest breakdown so you can see exactly when “I AM” carries divine significance.

1. The original biblical background: Exodus 3:14​

When God speaks to Moses:

Hebrew:​

אַהְיֶה אֲשֶׁר אֶהְיֶה
Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh
= “I AM WHO I AM” or “I WILL BE WHAT I WILL BE.”
Then God says:
“Say to the Israelites: Ehyeh (‘I AM’) has sent me to you.”
This revelation connects directly with the next verse:
YHWH (יהוה) — the Tetragrammaton.

So in Exodus 3:14–15:​

“I AM” → Ehyeh → directly linked to YHWH.
This is the foundation for all later discussion.

2. In the Septuagint (Greek OT), “I AM” becomes ἐγώ εἰμι (egō eimi)​

The Greek translation renders “I AM” in Exodus 3:14 as:
ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν
“I am the Being” / “I am the One who is.”
This becomes extremely important for how Jews and early Christians understood references to God.

3. In the New Testament, context determines whether “I am” is divine​

The NT uses the phrase ἐγώ εἰμι (I am) hundreds of times, often in normal, non-divine grammar (“I am hungry,” “I am a man,” etc).
But there are three categories:

Category 1: Normal speech (NOT divine)​

Examples:

• “I am a voice crying…” (John the Baptist — John 1:23)
• “I am not the Messiah”
• “I am the least of the apostles”

These have no reference to the divine name.

Category 2: Metaphorical predicates (possibly divine, depending on context)​

These are the “I am the ___” statements in John:

• “I am the bread of life”
• “I am the good shepherd”
• “I am the door”
• “I am the resurrection and the life”

These echo God’s revelation but include a predicate (“the bread,” “the door”).
They hint at divine identity, but they are not direct Tetragrammaton statements.

Category 3: Absolute “I AM” statements — NO predicate (directly divine)​

These match the style of Exodus 3:14 and the Septuagint.
Examples:

John 8:58 — the clearest case​

Here, Jesus does not say “I was.”
He uses the timeless “I AM” just like Exodus 3:14 LXX.
The Jewish listeners understood this as blasphemy and tried to stone Him —
indicating they believed He was claiming the divine name.

Other absolute “I AM” passages:​

• John 8:24 — “Unless you believe that I AM, you will die in your sins.”
• John 8:28 — “Then you will know that I AM.”
• John 13:19 — “When it happens, you may believe that I AM.”

These are modeled directly on the Greek of Isaiah 40–55 (LXX), where God repeatedly says:
“ἐγώ εἰμι” = “I AM”
as a divine self-designation.

4. Conclusion: Can “I AM” be a reference to the Tetragrammaton?​

YES — when used absolutely, without a predicate.​

Like Exodus 3:14 and certain statements in Isaiah and John.

YES — when it echoes God’s covenant name (YHWH).​

NO — when it is simple grammar or part of a longer predicate.​

So the phrase can be a reference to YHWH in the right context,
but it is not automatically divine every time someone says “I am.

Don't do general "copy and paste texts" on me, thanks.

The verse in John can be interpreted in your way, but does not need to. That is my point.

 

[cardiologist]

So, not explicitly, but you need to explain it quite a lot and move your finger through various verses.

When a New Testament writer takes passages, which are speaking about YHWH, and applies them to the Son, then this is explicit.

The Father is YHWH
The Son is YHWH
The Spirit is YHWH

The Father is not the Son
The Son is not the Spirit
The Spirit is not the Father

 

[HealthyShape]

When a New Testament writer takes passages, which are speaking about YHWH, and applies them to the Son, then this is explicit.

The Father is YHWH
The Son is YHWH
The Spirit is YHWH

The Father is not the Son
The Son is not the Spirit
The Spirit is not the Father

Explicit would be "Jesus is YHWH".

On the other hand, explicit is not "this part belongs to the first part, then go to the psalm and move to the beginning which the author does not quote and there you will see it".

 

[cardiologist]

Explicit would be "Jesus is YHWH".

That's what Hebrews 1 actually says, by quoting Passages about YHWH and applying them to the Son.

 

[HealthyShape]

That's what Hebrews 1 actually says, by quoting Passages about YHWH and applying them to the Son.

Heb 1 quotes the part with the word "God" in the Psalm.

Do not take me away, my God, in the midst of my days;
your years go on through all generations.
In the beginning you laid the foundations of the earth,
and the heavens are the work of your hands.

And the context of Heb 1 is proving Jesus is God, not that Jesus is YHWH. So, it still needs some work to do, it is not explicit.

 

[shepherdsword]

Don't do general "copy and paste texts" on me, thanks.

The verse in John can be interpreted in your way, but does not need to. That is my point.

My point is that in the context "I AM" is used in John it should be interpreted as a reference to YHWH (as the material I copied and pasted proves) Your point is as obvious as a blue sky. Of course John the Baptist saying "I am not the messiah" isn't a reference to YHWH.

One more thing...if you don't like copy/pasted material then just move along to the one of the "Happy threads" and stop being so snarky. I read pasted material every day because I have brains enough not to expect someone to hand type every fact they research.