Up until they die, assuming some of them chose to believe before they died, why doesn't that equal they were still beloved in the meantime?
You are saying all unbelieving Jews are beloved for the father's sakes, including those who never believe. How can that make sense? That's like saying the scribes and Pharisees that Jesus ranted against in Matthew 23, including asking them how they could avoid hell, were beloved for the father's sakes. No, they were not. This describes who the beloved are...
Romans 1:6 Among whom are ye also
the called of Jesus Christ: 7 To all that be in Rome,
beloved of God, called to be saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ. 8 First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for you all, that
your faith is spoken of throughout the whole world.
While on the OTOH, those that remain in disbelief up until death, they are no longer beloved at that point.
You obviously don't even know what the word "beloved" (Greek: agapētos) means. It's beyond the general love that God has for the world (John 3:16). It's a special kind of love that God only has for those who belong to Christ and have a personal relationship with Him. The word is most often used in scripture when God describes His beloved Son. The word simply would never be used to refer to any unbeliever at any time. An unbeliever can later become one of the beloved by believing, but while they are in disbelief, they are not beloved.
Romans 11:26 And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob
I would say I understand this the same way you do. That this is meaning the remnant not cutoff, unbelieving Jews who eventually choose to believe, and Gentiles that choose to believe.
I'm honestly quite surprised by this. I can't comprehend how you can understand the meaning of Romans 11:26, but not the meaning of Romans 11:28.
But even so, what about verse 30? Meaning this part---yet have now obtained mercy through their unbelief?
That's referring to believing Gentiles. You need to read the first part of Romans 11 to understand what that verse means.
Romans 11:11 Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious.
See here how the stumbling of the unbelieving Jews made the way for salvation to come to the Gentiles, who, in turn, were to make those unbelieving Jews envious? That's how the Gentiles obtained mercy through the unbelief of those unbelieving Jews.
If some of verse 28 is meaning the remnant that were never cutoff, why is Paul still talking about the Jews that were cutoff? Hasn't that been the main subject since verse 8?
Did you not read where I showed you who "the election" are, based on what is written in Romans 1:5-7? The election refers to the remnant of Israelite believers of Paul's time, which included Paul himself. Paul contrasted them with "the rest" who "were blinded". So, when Paul says "concerning the election" in Romans 11:28, using scripture to interpret scripture, that means he was referring to the remnant of elect believers.