This is the context of how Dan. 9:24-27 should be considered!

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Trekson

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So, still within the first century generation.



According to who?


Who gets to determine if a prophecy is 100 percent fulfilled or not?
God, but he also determines what is to come immediately after and by what he told us through other prophecies is that none of it has started yet.
 

Spiritual Israelite

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I’m very confused by your response….
LOL. I think I was pretty clear.

I think you are referring to the Helps Word Studies definition - not “necessarily in a very short time”?
No, I was referring to where it says "does not mean immediately". Yes, it does. Or, at the very least, that is one of its definitions. That comes across as if it it's saying that the word never means immediately. But, obviously, it does. When looking at how the word is used in scripture, it seems to always mean that.

Helps word studies is the common argument for the definition of tachy in revelation 22:12, where Christ says “I am coming (present tense verb) quickly”. While your examples of from Matthew and John indicate an immediate result of the quick/speed actions, The argument is that this word, grammatically, doesn’t “necessarily” require Christ to be presently coming immediately upon John receiving the revelation.
Show an example in scripture where the word is not used to mean immediately or in a very short amount of time.

But hey, I absolutely agree that it can mean something happens immediately as a result of quick/speedy action. So I think the “misinterpretation” of my post is on your part, which also doesn’t address the broader context that Jesus said “the time is near”, which literally does mean imminent/soon.
When Jesus said He is coming quickly, what do you think He meant by that? That is what I want to discuss. We've already talked before about what "the time is near" means, so I'm not interested in doing that again right now.
 

claninja

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God, but he also determines what is to come immediately after and by what he told us through other prophecies is that none of it has started yet.
But Jesus said the time was near in revelation, James said the coming of the Lord had drawn near in James 5, the author of Hebrews said the coming would occur in a little while and without delay, John said it was the last hour, and Peter said the end of all things had drawn near.

Jesus said his apostles “would know” it was near when they saw the events of the Olivet discourse. Their unanimous claims of it being near support that they believed they were living through the fulfillment of the Olivet discourse. If none or only part of the Olivet discourse was happening, there would be no reason for them to know it was near.
 

Trekson

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Some things were happening, yes and
But Jesus said the time was near in revelation, James said the coming of the Lord had drawn near in James 5, the author of Hebrews said the coming would occur in a little while and without delay, John said it was the last hour, and Peter said the end of all things had drawn near.

Jesus said his apostles “would know” it was near when they saw the events of the Olivet discourse. Their unanimous claims of it being near support that they believed they were living through the fulfillment of the Olivet discourse. If none or only part of the Olivet discourse was happening, there would be no reason for them to know it was near.
Some things were happening, yes and that is why many were concerned in 2 Thess. 2:2. However, Paul knew there were still signs to be fulfilled and he gave some in vss. 3-12 which still hasn't happened. Every generation should have lived as if Christ's return could happen in their generation. I would say that every generation since has experienced many of those prophetic like events. However, many is not "all and the "all" of the church age won't come until after Armageddon, when the new age will begin.
 

claninja

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LOL. I think I was pretty clear.


No, I was referring to where it says "does not mean immediately". Yes, it does. Or, at the very least, that is one of its definitions. That comes across as if it it's saying that the word never means immediately. But, obviously, it does. When looking at how the word is used in scripture, it seems to always mean that.


Show an example in scripture where the word is not used to mean immediately or in a very short amount of time.


When Jesus said He is coming quickly, what do you think He meant by that? That is what I want to discuss. We've already talked before about what "the time is near" means, so I'm not interested in doing that again right now.

We all think our arguments are clear, but that is not always the case.


Revelation 22:12 “ I am coming quickly”. I am coming is a present tense verb. Was Christ presently coming immediately when the revelation was given to John?
 

covenantee

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Sorry, but 70 ad fulfilled none of them.
So Jesus never answered any of His disciples' questions.
And when He spoke to "you" and "ye", He was speaking to the wind. :laughing:

The Judaean Christians invalidate your claim.
Prior to 70 AD, they remembered Jesus' warnings, and heeded them, and fled to safety. Matthew 24:15-18; Luke 21:2021; Mark 13:14-16
None of them perished.

Thank God, not one of them was a dispensational futurist.
They all survived.
 
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Spiritual Israelite

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Revelation 22:12 “ I am coming quickly”. I am coming is a present tense verb.
It is normally a present tense verb, but not always. Here are a couple examples where it is used in the future tense...

Matthew 8:5 Now when Jesus had entered Capernaum, a centurion came to Him, pleading with Him, 6 saying, “Lord, my servant is lying at home paralyzed, dreadfully tormented.” 7 And Jesus said to him, “I will come (Greek: erchomai) and heal him.”

Luke 23:29 For indeed the days are coming in which they will say, ‘Blessed are the barren, wombs that never bore, and breasts which never nursed!’

The word can also be used in the present indicative, which in Greek indicates a certainty of a future event rather than something that is currently happening. So, the word is either used in that way or in the future tense in Revelation 22:12.

Was Christ presently coming immediately when the revelation was given to John?
No, of course not, but I am asking you what you think He was saying when He said "I am coming quickly", so can you answer the question?
 
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Zao is life

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It's saying what I said

Are you Daniel? I thought it's saying what Daniel said.

at the end of the 69th week Messiah was "cut off".

LoL. "After ('achar) the 69th week" does not in any way, shape or form mean "at the end of" the 69th week. You've now made it 100% clear how dishonest you are with scripture. You'd love to change the words in scripture to make it fit your false doctrines - but you can't.

Daniel 9
24 Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy.
25 Know therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times
26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself:

Subject of verses 24-27: The Messiah, and the coming of the Messiah.

Subjects of verse 26:

(a) The Messiah; and
(b) The people of the prince that would come and would destroy the city and the sanctuary.

Subjects of verse 27:

(a) The Messiah (strengthening the covenant); and
(b) The desolation of the 2nd temple.

Subject of verse 27 (b) was carried out by (b) in verse 26 - forty years later - which proves once again that the subject of the prophecy is the coming of the Messiah and the Messiah being cut off - because the prophecy gives the week during which the Messiah would be cut off - the week following the first 69 weeks ('achar - AFTER the 69th week, and in the midst of the 70th week) - but it does not give the year that the city and temple would be destroyed.

You are presuming it's about Christ, but if one went to the last person mentioned it would be the prince to come.

There - you make it abundantly clear again: Your false doctrine is based on denial of the meaning of the word 'achar and denial of who the chief subject is in the prophecy (namely, the One introduced in verse 24).

With regard to the prophecy in Daniel 9:24-27, you have made it 100% clear that your faith is placed in the prince of the people who were to come and destroy the city and the 2nd temple (as though he was the subject of the prophecy, who was introduced in verse 24).​
 
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claninja

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The word can also be used in the present indicative, which in Greek indicates a certainty of a future event rather than something that is currently happening. So, the word is either used in that way or in the future tense in Revelation 22:12.
Bingo! Now we are talking. While Greek present tense often does indicate action occurring in the present, that is not always the case. Present tense portrays an imperfect aspect (continuous action) and context often determines the timing of when this action is taking place. I’m pretty sure Future tense does not have continuous aspect, so if the author wants to demonstrate immediacy or continuous action in the future, present tense is used.

That’s why we can’t just discuss the phrase “I am coming quickly” in a vacuum as you seemingly want to argue. We have look at context to determine timing.

Revelation 22:10 then he told me, “Do not seal up the words of prophecy in this book, because the time is near.

So contextually, leading up to vs 12, the angel tells John not seal up the vision because the time is NEAR.

Therefore, if the “time is near” is related to the coming of Christ, THEN the timing of Christ coming quickly was near or soon to occur.
 

Spiritual Israelite

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Bingo! Now we are talking.
Really? I thought we already were talking before... sml

While Greek present tense often does indicate action occurring in the present, that is not always the case.
Uh huh.

Present tense portrays an imperfect aspect (continuous action) and context often determines the timing of when this action is taking place. I’m pretty sure Future tense does not have continuous aspect, so if the author wants to demonstrate immediacy or continuous action in the future, present tense is used.

That’s why we can’t just discuss the phrase “I am coming quickly” in a vacuum as you seemingly want to argue.
For crying out loud, man. What does it take to get you to answer a question? We can talk about other things as well if you want, but I'm simply asking you what you think Jesus was saying when He said "I am coming quickly". Can you just please answer the question?

I'm trying to show you how your understanding of Jesus saying "I am coming quickly" is false. I can discuss why your understanding of "the time is near" is false later even though I've already done that multiple times in the past. One thing at a time.

We have look at context to determine timing.

Revelation 22:10 then he told me, “Do not seal up the words of prophecy in this book, because the time is near.

So contextually, leading up to vs 12, the angel tells John not seal up the vision because the time is NEAR.

Therefore, if the “time is near” is related to the coming of Christ, THEN the timing of Christ coming quickly was near or soon to occur.
Good grief. You are avoiding the point. The word quickly means immediately or in a very short amount of time. Without delay. It does not mean near. So, what Jesus was saying is that once He comes, which no one knows when that will be, He will come quickly. Immediately. Without delay. As fast as lightning flashes from the east to the west (Matthew 24:27). When He said He was coming quickly He was not at all saying that His coming was near. Quickly does not mean near. It means immediately and without delay. You are trying to change what He said to "I am coming soon" or "My second coming is near". That's not what He said at all. He said "I am coming quickly". That means when He comes He will come quickly/immediately/without delay. His statement does not give any indication of the timing of His return, but rather how quickly He will come whenever He does return.
 
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Zao is life

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It is normally a present tense verb, but not always. Here are a couple examples where it is used in the future tense...

Matthew 8:5 Now when Jesus had entered Capernaum, a centurion came to Him, pleading with Him, 6 saying, “Lord, my servant is lying at home paralyzed, dreadfully tormented.” 7 And Jesus said to him, “I will come (Greek: erchomai) and heal him.”

Luke 23:29 For indeed the days are coming in which they will say, ‘Blessed are the barren, wombs that never bore, and breasts which never nursed!’

The word can also be used in the present indicative, which in Greek indicates a certainty of a future event rather than something that is currently happening. So, the word is either used in that way or in the future tense in Revelation 22:12.

No, of course not, but I am asking you what you think He was saying when He said "I am coming quickly", so can you answer the question?

Bingo! Now we are talking. While Greek present tense often does indicate action occurring in the present, that is not always the case. Present tense portrays an imperfect aspect (continuous action) and context often determines the timing of when this action is taking place. I’m pretty sure Future tense does not have continuous aspect, so if the author wants to demonstrate immediacy or continuous action in the future, present tense is used.

That’s why we can’t just discuss the phrase “I am coming quickly” in a vacuum

It's good that you say that - because you are discussing it in a vacuum when it appears in the Revelation.

1. [G5034 tachos]: swiftly within a brief space of time.

Paul had been transferred to a prison in Caesarea to keep him safe from the Jews. Festus, the Roman governor, had gone from Caesarea to Jerusalem, and the high priest and the chief of the Jews informed Festus against Paul and begged him, asking a favor against Paul that Festus would send for him to Jerusalem (they had made a plot to kill Paul on way).

Festus answered that Paul should be kept at Caesarea - Festus himself would depart Jerusalem swiftly within a brief space of time [G5034 tachos], saying that those having power among the Jews may go down to Caesarea with him, and if there is a thing amiss in Paul, let them accuse him.

Then staying among them more than ten days, going down to Caesarea, on the next day sitting on the judgment seat, he commanded Paul to be brought, and the Jews who came down from Jerusalem stood around and brought many charges against Paul, which they could not prove. (Acts 25:1-7)

In Luke 18:7-8, Jesus said:

"Won't God give justice to his chosen ones, who cry out to him day and night? Will he bear their suffering with them, but delay long to help them?

I say to you that He will avenge them swifly within a brief space of time [G5034 tachos]."

Then He said:


"Yet when the Son of man comes, shall He find faith on the earth?".

The first verse in the book of Revelation uses the same word:

"The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants things which must come to pass swiftly within a brief space of time [G5034 tachos] - things which Jesus signified by His angel to His servant John, whom He sent out with it." (Revelation 1:1).

You need to stop interpreting the above word and the word below in a vacuum when it appears in the Revelation:

2. At hand [G1451 eggus]

Luke 19
11 And as they heard these things, he added and spake a parable, because he was near [G1451 eggus] to Jerusalem, and because they thought that the kingdom of God should immediately [G3916 parachrema] appear.

Mark 13
28 Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When her branch is yet tender, and putteth forth leaves, ye know that summer is near [G1451 eggus].

You have guessed that time into the first century AD, and no amount of telling you not to interpret the word in a vacuum is going to change your mind.

Revelation 1
3 Blessed is he that reads, and they that hear the words of this prophecy, and keep those things which are written therein: for the time is [G1451 eggus] at hand.

Nothing in the New Testament that mentions the time of Christ's return / the time of the end suggests or implies that it would take place in the 1st century AD - or ANY century. That's why Jesus gave signs and told His disciples to watch. But His disciples can't even understand the signs, which is why for every two Christians there are three opinions about the Olivet Discourse.​
 
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Zao is life

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The 70th week will come in God's timing, there is nothing about the word "determined" that implies they all have to be in one time period, that's your opinion.

:rolleyes:

Actually it's your opinion that the word does not mean what it means because you do not want it to mean what it means. The word "determined" in Daniel 9:24 means the same thing as "490 years have been decreed by God". The word 'achar (after) in verse 26 means that God determined that the Messiah would be cut off in the 70th week, and we know that it was in the midst of the 70th week that He was cut off:

"In the same day the Lord made [[H3772 karath] a covenant with Abram, saying, Unto thy seed have I given this land, from the river of Egypt unto the great river, the river Euphrates" (Genesis 15:18).

[H3772 karath]
to cut (off, down or asunder); by implication, to destroy or consume; specifically, to covenant (i.e. make an alliance or bargain, originally by cutting flesh and passing between the pieces):--be chewed, be con-(feder-)ate, covenant, cut (down, off), destroy, fail, feller, be freed, hew (down), make a league ((covenant)), X lose, perish, X utterly, X want.

"And after [H0310 'achar] threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off [H03772 karath], but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined. (Daniel 9:26)

There's the covenant mentioned right there - in Daniel 9:26 - by the word translated as "cut off". It's saying that Messiah shall cut a covenant after the first 483 years:

And he shall confirm [H01396 gabar] the covenant
with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate. (Daniel 9:27)

[H01396 gabar gaw-bar']
a primitive root; to be strong; by implication, to prevail, act insolently:--exceed, confirm, be great, be mighty, prevail, put to more (strength), strengthen, be stronger, be valiant.

This is talking about His life:

"He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off [1504 gazar] out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken." (Isaiah 53:8)

This is talking about the covenant He cut in His blood:

"And after [H0310 'achar] threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off [H03772 karath], but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined. (Daniel 9:26)​
 
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Spiritual Israelite

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:rolleyes:

Actually it's your opinion that the word does not mean what it means because you do not want it to mean what it means. The word "determined" in Daniel 9:24 means the same thing as "490 years have been decreed by God".​
Right. It means a 490 year time period was decreed by God by the end of which the six things listed in Daniel 9:24 would be fulfilled along with the confirming of the new covenant during the 70th week (last 7 years). It doesn't say that 69 weeks (483 years) were determined (decreed) followed by an undetermined gap of time followed by another one week (7 years). No, the meaning of the 70 weeks being determined or decreed is that it is a continuous 70 week (490 year) time period. There is no basis whatsoever for inserting a time gap of any length, let alone thousands of years, between the 69th and 70th weeks.
 
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Trekson

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So Jesus never answered any of His disciples' questions.
And when He spoke to "you" and "ye", He was speaking to the wind. :laughing:

The Judaean Christians invalidate your claim.
Prior to 70 AD, they remembered Jesus' warnings, and heeded them, and fled to safety. Matthew 24:15-18; Luke 21:2021; Mark 13:14-16
None of them perished.

Thank God, not one of them was a dispensational futurist.
They all survived.
Only Lk. 21:21-24 was specifically about 70ad. There are over 200,000 christians in Israel today and they still have sabbath laws that could affect one's efforts to get out town. He was speaking to the 3-4 disciples as founding fathers of the church. Prophecy is hardly ever for the generation that receives it, and btw the way they were futurist dispensationalists because they actually understood what it meant and not the false notions pedaled by the anti-dyspy crowd.
 

Trekson

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Are you Daniel? I thought it's saying what Daniel said.



LoL. "After ('achar) the 69th week" does not in any way, shape or form mean "at the end of" the 69th week. You've now made it 100% clear how dishonest you are with scripture. You'd love to change the words in scripture to make it fit your false doctrines - but you can't.

Daniel 9
24 Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy.
25 Know therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times
26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself:

Subject of verses 24-27: The Messiah, and the coming of the Messiah.

Subjects of verse 26:

(a) The Messiah; and
(b) The people of the prince that would come and would destroy the city and the sanctuary.

Subjects of verse 27:

(a) The Messiah (strengthening the covenant); and
(b) The desolation of the 2nd temple.

Subject of verse 27 (b) was carried out by (b) in verse 26 - forty years later - which proves once again that the subject of the prophecy is the coming of the Messiah and the Messiah being cut off - because the prophecy gives the week during which the Messiah would be cut off - the week following the first 69 weeks ('achar - AFTER the 69th week, and in the midst of the 70th week) - but it does not give the year that the city and temple would be destroyed.



There - you make it abundantly clear again: Your false doctrine is based on denial of the meaning of the word 'achar and denial of who the chief subject is in the prophecy (namely, the One introduced in verse 24).

With regard to the prophecy in Daniel 9:24-27, you have made it 100% clear that your faith is placed in the prince of the people who were to come and destroy the city and the 2nd temple (as though he was the subject of the prophecy, who was introduced in verse 24).​
one second after 12/31-1/1 the previous year is past.
 

claninja

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Really? I thought we already were talking before... sml

It’s an expression……

For crying out loud, man. What does it take to get you to answer a question? We can talk about other things as well if you want, but I'm simply asking you what you think Jesus was saying when He said "I am coming quickly". Can you just please answer the question?

I'm trying to show you how your understanding of Jesus saying "I am coming quickly" is false. I can discuss why your understanding of "the time is near" is false later even though I've already done that multiple times in the past. One thing at a time.

Are you even reading my posts? Why do you keep asking this over and over again. As already previously stated, I believe tachy means quickly. You believe that is false understanding?



Good grief. You are avoiding the point. The word quickly means immediately or in a very short amount of time. Without delay. It does not mean near. So, what Jesus was saying is that once He comes, which no one knows when that will be, He will come quickly. Immediately. Without delay. As fast as lightning flashes from the east to the west (Matthew 24:27). When He said He was coming quickly He was not at all saying that His coming was near. Quickly does not mean near. It means immediately and without delay. You are trying to change what He said to "I am coming soon" or "My second coming is near". That's not what He said at all. He said "I am coming quickly". That means when He comes He will come quickly/immediately/without delay. His statement does not give any indication of the timing of His return, but rather how quickly He will come whenever He does return.

I’ve already agreed it can mean quickly, and without delay. I never once said tachy means near, so I have no idea what you are talking about. It seems you are arguing with your own misunderstanding of the definition provided by Helps word studies. I think This is why your responses have been confusing. Some might take the phrase “I am coming quickly” by itself to mean Christ is presently coming immediately. Helps is arguing against that.

Again, I believe tacky likely means quickly as in speedily. Therefore, as already stated, Once the time is near, Christ comes quickly, speedily; I’ll add “immediately”.

My main point was the “when” does Christ come quickly or speedily —— Can we know when the speedily coming of Christ is near?
 

Trekson

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:rolleyes:

Actually it's your opinion that the word does not mean what it means because you do not want it to mean what it means. The word "determined" in Daniel 9:24 means the same thing as "490 years have been decreed by God". The word 'achar (after) in verse 26 means that God determined that the Messiah would be cut off in the 70th week, and we know that it was in the midst of the 70th week that He was cut off:

"In the same day the Lord made [[H3772 karath] a covenant with Abram, saying, Unto thy seed have I given this land, from the river of Egypt unto the great river, the river Euphrates" (Genesis 15:18).

[H3772 karath]
to cut (off, down or asunder); by implication, to destroy or consume; specifically, to covenant (i.e. make an alliance or bargain, originally by cutting flesh and passing between the pieces):--be chewed, be con-(feder-)ate, covenant, cut (down, off), destroy, fail, feller, be freed, hew (down), make a league ((covenant)), X lose, perish, X utterly, X want.

"And after [H0310 'achar] threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off [H03772 karath], but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined. (Daniel 9:26)

There's the covenant mentioned right there - in Daniel 9:26 - by the word translated as "cut off". It's saying that Messiah shall cut a covenant after the first 483 years:

And he shall confirm [H01396 gabar] the covenant
with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate. (Daniel 9:27)

[H01396 gabar gaw-bar']
a primitive root; to be strong; by implication, to prevail, act insolently:--exceed, confirm, be great, be mighty, prevail, put to more (strength), strengthen, be stronger, be valiant.

This is talking about His life:

"He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off [1504 gazar] out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken." (Isaiah 53:8)

This is talking about the covenant He cut in His blood:

"And after [H0310 'achar] threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off [H03772 karath], but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined. (Daniel 9:26)​
That is seeing what you want to see, the only covenant mentioned in this passage is speaking about, is a secular covenant that hasn't happened yet. You're the one changing scripture because you choose to ignore the verses that prove this belief to be wrong. Being impatient, antsy and demanding God obey your rules is the cause of the very false notion of historicism.
 

Zao is life

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one second after 12/31-1/1 the previous year is past.

So now you have decided to adjust it from the end of the 69th week to one second into the 70th week even though Daniel was writing about the coming of the Messiah who would be cut off after the 69th week and bring an end to sacrifice and offering in the midst of the one week remaining.

Are you Daniel?

Do you even know why God sent Jesus to die for our sins?

Hebrews 10:8-10
"Sacrifice and offering and burnt offerings and offering for sin thou wouldest not, neither hadst pleasure therein; which are offered by the law;

Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second. By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all."

The prophecy that Hebrews quoted says:

Isaiah 1:11-14
"To what purpose is the multitude of your sacrifices to Me? says the LORD; I am full of the burnt offerings of rams, and the fat of fed beasts; and I do not delight in the blood of bulls, or of lambs, or of he-goats. When you come to appear before Me, who has required this at your hand, to trample My courts?

Bring no more vain sacrifice; incense is an abomination to Me; the new moon and sabbath, the going to meeting; I cannot endure evil and the assembly! Your new moons and your appointed feasts My soul hates; they are a trouble to Me; I am weary to bear them."

Daniel 9:27b prophesied about the Messiah causing the animal sacrifices for sins and the oblations to cease, by rendering them obsolete through His own sacrifice of Himself:

"..and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it (the city and the temple) desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate." (Daniel 9:27b).

The abominations spoken of in verse 27 are not specified (as to what they were) but it's safe (at least not without any basis) to assume they were in the form of continued animal sacrifices in rejection of the Messiah.​
 
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Zao is life

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That is seeing what you want to see, the only covenant mentioned in this passage is speaking about, is a secular covenant that hasn't happened yet.

Nonsense. Hebrews tells you who was making the covenant, and why.

You're the one changing scripture because you choose to ignore the verses that prove this belief to be wrong. Being impatient, antsy and demanding God obey your rules is the cause of the very false notion of historicism.

No you have chosen to change who the prophecy is about by changing who is making the covenant in verse 27, week 70, and who is cut off in the middle of the 70th week, causing sacrifice and oblation to cease.
 
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