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I do not agree. Romans 10:17 faith comes by hearing. The logical conclusion is a person who has not heard cannot have faith/cannot believe. Therefore logical implication of Christ's words (John 5:24) is one must first hear BEFORE he can believe. For how can one believe what he has not...

The gospel (which includes water baptism for remission of sins) went to the Jew first then to the Gentile Romans 1:16. Therefore the water baptism of the great commission (Mark 16:15-16; Matthew 28:19-20) is for all nations, every creature and not just to the Jew. Water baptism o the NT is not...

---The Publican is not an example of NT salvation and how men today come into a covenant relationship to God. ---a sinner can love his neighbor but that will not save him. Not until the sinner obeys God's righteousness, obey God's commands to believe, repent confess and be baptized can that...

The "One baptism" refers to Christ's baptism of the great commission. Christ's baptism of the great commission: (Matthew 28:19-20; Mark 16:15-16) --saves --is commanded --is for all men --is administered by men --is how disciples are made --lasts till the end of the world. None of these are...

I agree, but penal substitution is the bases for the LIP in Tulip. Some background: The Bible clearly shows that for one to have his sins forgiven and be seen righteous-justified by God requires man's obedience to God's will......"obedience unto righteousness" Romans 6:16 and "obey from the...

Mark 16:16 "he that is not baptized" is logically inherent in the phrase "he that believeth not" In Mark 16:16a Jesus made a logical progression of steps in making belief a prerequisite before being baptized and baptism a prerequisite before being saved. This means one must believe before he...

Hi, Acts 10:35 "but in every nation he that feareth Him, and worketh righteousness, is acceptable to Him." I would have to disagree with your statement above. There is no righteousness - justification in those that know not God, they are seen by God as unrighteous, lost 2 Thessalonians 1:8...

Romans 10:3 "For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God." There is a difference between one doing his own righteousness that cannot save and doing God's righteousness that does...

But you have not refuted the 'junk'. it still stands. Nor do the verses you cite prove penal substitution either. For example, Isa 53:6: Looking at the broader context: Isaiah 53:5 "But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace...

You've never been able to show just one example from the BIble where man's obedience to God earned God's free gift of salvation. Hebrews 11:7 Noah's house being saved from the flood was by God's grace but it conditionally took Noah's obedience in building the ark in order for his house to be...

I don't not care who taught it, it is not found in the Bible that all of men's sin, the guilt of sin the penalty of sin was transferred to Christ. Christ is a ransom for man's sin, a propitiation for man's sin but was not a receptacle for man's sins. God determined that Christ would be the...

How can one believe in penal substitution yet not go along with the LIP in TULIP? IF all of man's sins, all the guilt of sin, all the penalty of man's sin were all UNCONDITIONAL imputed/transferred to Christ and in turn Christ's righteousness is UNCONDITIONALLY imputed to the sinner then...

The idea of penal substitution has no Biblical basis but comes from Calvinism. Penal substitution being the basis for the "L" "I" and "P" of TULIP. From what I have read about penal substitution, it is an attempt to find a way to irresistibly save (I in TULIP) only certain men (L in TULIP)...

Unfortunately some people confuse works done to merit salvation and obedience to the will of God. Obedience to God's will never earns God's grace but is a necessary condition God has place upon His free gift of grace. Hebrews 5:9 Christ is the Author of salvation (the free gift) to all them...

Those in Corinth went from being unrighteous ( revilers, swindlers, thieves) to being righteous (justified). The important issue here is what does it take for one to go from being unrighteous-wrong doing to being righteous-right doing-justified? Romans 6:16 "obedience unto righteousness Romans...

It is simple to understand for those that have a correct understanding of the Bible: ---God requires one to be without sin, blameless and without spot (2 Peter 3:14) in order for one to be saved. ---Since man's obedience will not be perfect ("all have sinned" Romans 5:12) then man will not be...

Because one's obedience will not be perfect, therefore one is an" unprofitable servant" and in need of grace. (Luke 17:10) I have never said Noah earned/deserved God's grace. Even though Noah obeyed God, his obedience was not perfect leaving him standing in need of God's grace. God's grace...

Abraham's faith was seen as righteous by God more than just Genesis 15:6 1) In Genesis 12 in obeying God in moving from his house, land and kindred, Abraham had an obedient faith (Hebrews 11:8). In Romans 4:13 Paul writes about "righteousness of faith". Hence Abraham's faith in Gen 12 would...

It's like 1+2=3. It takes BOTH the 1 and 2 to have 3. 1 does not equal 3.

I got out of it that the Bible is its own best commentary, that nothing confirms the Bible more than the Bible itself in "how perfectly free the doctrine is from every thing that savors of earth — how beautifully it harmonizes in all its parts — and how rich it is in all the other qualities...