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If you say so.

Not before the fifth century. I'm not Roman Catholic and I don't believe in the Assumption, but neither do I discount the value of tradition.

Actually, I believe that Bible silence is equivocal.

I think you are wrong about this, my friend. Catholics do believe that the Bible is preeminent authority. It is for matters on which the Bible is silent that Catholics turn to tradition and to the Magisterium. The two examples you mention are in this category.

We are talking past each other. I AGREE WITH YOU that keeping the Sabbath is not binding on Christians. But distilling that fact from the ninth chapter of Hebrews is just untenable. That the earliest Christians did not worship on the sabbath may corroborate a dozen scripture passages which...

Understood. I'm not buying into papal authority by any means. But Peter certainly was given "the keys." My skepticism turns on the assignment and reassignment and re-reassignment etc. of those keys to and by his successors in the bishopric of Rome. There are a lot of perspectives on this...

I don't know of any. “There is no evidence of any tradition concerning Mary’s dormition and Assumption from before the 5th century. The only exception to this is Epiphanius’ unsuccessful attempt to uncover a tradition of the end of Mary’s life toward the end of the fourth century and his...

I would definitely blame that person for his/her infidelity, no mater the depth of physical attraction toward the non-spouse.

I don't see physical response to sexual attraction (which everyone has) as analogous to a propensity for violence (which I have never seen in a person, nor would I consider it a physical response characteristic).

Marian devotion was already a feature of the Catholic Church by the fourth century. The Sub Tuum Praesidium, and the fourteenth chapter of Methodius' Oration on Simeon and Anna, predecessors to the modern day "Hail Mary," date from early in that century.

I'm surprised to hear you say you don't care that the Catholic Church canonized the Bible. You've got a collection of writings in that Book on your shelf which were chosen for inclusion by a Church you disrespect, with content decisions (e.g., the Letter of Barnabas is out, the Letter to the...

I see it as Matthew putting a spin on whatever word Jesus used (probably "ladoth") in order to connote what Matthew (and his audience) thought of as the community of all believers, the Body of Christ if you will -- when Jesus may actually have meant to appoint Peter as simply the high priest of...

True, except that in Matt. 16:18 Jesus would not have used any Aramaic or Hebrew word that could fairly be translated into Greek as ἐκκλησίᾳ -- used in the LXX to refer to the assembly of Israel. The word is almost always translated in the NT as “church,” but it literally means “assembly” or...

I'll try to explain. Heb. 9:16-17 is stating that a will is effective once its testator dies, not before. Prior to the testator's death it has no effect to transmit property to an heir. It only is given effect upon the death of the testator. Read the whole chapter, and you will see that the...

An opposing viewpoint: Let’s Stop Over-Interpreting Agape vs Phileo

These verses are talking about a will! Alternate meanings of διαθήκη like "covenant" or "testament" (unless in the sense of "Last Will and Testament") clearly are not the intent in these verses.

Wasn't the OT still "in effect" (not sure what exactly you mean by this) when EVERYTHING he said was spoken? What are the ramifications of this type of coloring of Jesus's comments, in your view? Are you suggesting that when the New Covenant supplanted the Old Covenant, every precept in the OT...

We are discussing οὗτος when used as an adjective, not as a pronoun. Why do you keep referencing its possible translation in pronoun usage? Keep your eye on the ball, please. Matt. 24:34.

Mine is not just a translation "choice." It's compelling. Your claim was that the word could be "equally" translated as "that." I beg to differ. If "that" were a valid translation, why is the score 1,000+ to zero with all case, number and gender variations of οὗτος counted? The fact is...

Quote any English translation you like of any verse with αὕτη and the result will be the same: αὕτη is always translated as "this" rather than "that." Check for yourself. Matthew 21:42 Κυρίου ἐγένετο αὕτη καὶ ἔστιν Matthew 22:20 ἡ εἰκὼν αὕτη καὶ ἡ Matthew 22:38 αὕτη ἐστὶν ἡ Matthew...