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    Did God Kill Jesus?

    Theophilus to Autolycus Book II Philip Schaff: ANF02. Fathers of the Second Century: Hermas, Tatian, Athenagoras, Theophilus, and Clement of Alexandria (Entire) - Christian Classics Ethereal Library You will say, then, to me: "You said that God ought not to be contained in a place, and...
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    Did God Kill Jesus?

    https://www.forananswer.org/John/Jn1_1.htm Justin Martyr: Dialog with Trypho Philip Schaff: ANF01. The Apostolic Fathers with Justin Martyr and Irenaeus - Christian Classics Ethereal Library “'He is called God, and He is and shall be God.' And when all had agreed on these grounds, I...
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    Did God Kill Jesus?

    While the scholars we have considered have some differences with regard to the applicability of Colwell's Rule to John 1:1c and the particular semantic force of THEOS in this clause, they are unanimous in regarding the proper understanding of John's meaning: The Word has all the qualities...
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    Did God Kill Jesus?

    Don Hartley One of the possible objections to Wallace's advocacy of qualitativeness as by far the most likely semantic force (apart from a concurrent definite or indefinite nuance) is that most of the examples he provides are "mass" nouns. Mass nouns are those that cannot be semantically...
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    Did God Kill Jesus?

    Dixon's statistical methodology, unlike Colwells', was to begin with anarthrous PNs (as opposed to only examining those PNs that were definite), and determine the semantic force of each. His statistical analysis substantiates Harner's findings: "When the anarthrous predicate nominative...
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    Did God Kill Jesus?

    Harner continues: Thus, Harner says that not only is John attributing the nature of THEOS to the LOGOS, but emphasizes that nature by placing THEOS at the head of the clause. The emphasis of THEOS would seem unaccountable if John intended an indefinite nuance, but is perfectly understandable...
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    Did God Kill Jesus?

    So, Harner, in agreement with Robertson, Dana & Mantey, and most other scholars cited above, notes that if both THEOS and LOGOS were articular, the two terms would be convertible. Since John did not use this syntax, his intended meaning must be something else. Harner continues: Thus, Harner...
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    Did God Kill Jesus?

    Harner says that qualitativeness may coexist with either a definite or indefinite semantic force. Though not explicitly stated, a close reading also indicates that he believed qualitativeness may exist by itself. When considering Mark 12:35, Harner says, "the predicate noun could be...
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    Did God Kill Jesus?

    Blass, Debrunner, and Funk The Blass and Debrunner grammar, translated and revised by Robert Funk, generally endorses Colwell's study, but notes: "[Colwell] deals only with sentences in which the verb appears and only with nouns that are unambiguously definite" (BDF, p. 143). The latter point...
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    Did God Kill Jesus?

    At the same time, the vast majority of commentators (e.g., Carson) and some grammarians (e.g., Metzger) have accepted Colwell's conclusions regarding John 1:1, as has at least one major study (see Lane McGaughy, below). As with their earlier counterparts, these more recent scholars do not...
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    Did God Kill Jesus?

    Colwell's Rule In 1933, E.C. Colwell published his now famous study of the use of the article with PNs occurring both before and after the verb. Colwell began by identifying a number of PNs that he believed were definite by virtue of the context. He then performed a statistical analysis of...
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    Did God Kill Jesus?

    Pre-Colwell Before E.C. Colwell wrote his landmark study (see below), many scholars viewed THEOS in John 1:1c as qualitative: "It is necessarily without the article (qeoV not`o qeoV) inasmuch as it describes the nature of the WOrd and does not identify His Person. It would be pure Sebellianism...
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    Did God Kill Jesus?

    TON THEON, literally "the God," is in the accusative case, which makes this the direct object of the second clause (hO LOGOS is in the nominative, and is thus the subject). There is no difference in meaning between THEON here and THEOS in the next clause; they are the same word in different...
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    Did God Kill Jesus?

    en arch hn`o logoV, kai`o logoV hn proV ton qeon, kai qeoV hn`o logoV. EN ARCHÊ ÊN hO LOGOS, KAI hO LOGOS ÊN PROS TON THEON, KAI THEOS ÊN hO LOGOS. In [the] beginning was the Word, and the Word was with (the) God, and the Word was God. ARCHÊ Beginning, origin in the abs[olute] sense...
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    Did God Kill Jesus?

    Thus, John audience would have understood that in the Beginning, God has with Him His creative Word - the Word by which He spoke the universe into existence. They would, at this point, perhaps have more readily thought of the Word as yet another poetic personification of an attribute of God; it...
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    Did God Kill Jesus?

    John 1 << Previous Verse Next Verse >> 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. Grammatical Analysis... Other views considered... For further reading... C o m m e n t a r y With the possible exception of Genesis 1:1, this verse is the...
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    Kolasis - William Barclay

    Interresting all, Thanks Daniel
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    Kolasis - William Barclay

    friend, Peter tells us to test all things. We are not to pray to see if the BOM is from G_d. We are to compare Mormon teachings on major doctrine and the Bible which is G_d's only true word.
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    Kolasis - William Barclay

    quotes from Jane's source God Is Our Loving Heavenly Father God is our Heavenly Father. We are His children. He has a body of flesh and bone that is glorified and perfected. ... What is the nature of God the Father and Jesus Christ? 1 Nephi 17:36 2 Nephi 9:6 Mosiah 4:9 3 Nephi 12:48 3 Nephi...