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Yes but the Jews kept doing it that’s why it was still happening when Hebrews was written and the writer said that it would soon disappear

Yet it doesn’t say obsolete to saints it says obsolete. The writer also says that it will soon disappear and it did with the destruction of the temple and the writer know that it would happen soon because Jesus said it would why do you think that the temple was destroyed?

If it’s the law I think you’re talking about it wasn’t even given until mosses

See post #121 How can gentiles be under the law? The law never has or even could save anyone

Are you not a sinner? We all are Romans 3:10 As it is written: “There is no one righteous, not even one; You need to reevaluate you understanding of salvation

The bible says otherwise Hebrews 8:13 By calling this covenant “new,” he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and outdated will soon disappear.

No I have the full grace now

You obviously don’t understand preterism to make a statement like this. I am a partial preterist not a full one and yes many of the Old Testament promises are a present reality today. We are in the age of many prophecies fulfilled today. Today the Holy Spirit resides in me and I am proof of...

Partial preterism is about the ending of the old covenant and the ushering in of the new covenant

Sure but what do you think the world means in this quote? It’s the worldly ways not the people

Here is a section from one of my studies on Matthew 24 Mt 24:14 14And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations, and then the end will come. This shows that the disciples were asking about the end of the temple sacrificial age as the whole...

It doesn’t really matter the point is that it says the world and the world is the world it doesn’t say a part of the world.

Did Jesus mean the whole world in the verse below or just the people that heard Him? John 18:20 20 Jesus answered him, I have spoken openly to the world; I ever taught in synagogues, and in the temple, where all the Jews come together; and in secret spake I nothing.

So the verse below was the second coming Matthew 24:1-2 24 Jesus left the temple and was walking away when his disciples came up to him to call his attention to its buildings.2 “Do you see all these things?” he asked. “Truly I tell you, not one stone here will be left on another; every one...

Even satan quoted truth in the bible but my point is that the Pharisees knew that Jesus didn’t have the whole world go after Him at that time it was their world as in the area that they were living in

It’s a simple question which has a huge bearing on this thread so once again what did Jesus mean by the word “world”in John 18:20? Silence speaks loudly What I’m showing is that the bible uses the same words to have different meanings

Once again you completely avoid answering a question this time about John 18:20. I have never debated with someone who constantly avoids direct question. In debates that can't be done

That is not an answer and only an effort to try to side step one of my two questions. I'm giving you the chance once again to answer them. Did the pharrasiees mean that Jesus was leading the whole world astray (before fast travel phones TV and the internet) or just the local area in Israel...

You have never answered the questions to my knowledge and if so and we missed it please answer it again. Was Jesus and the pharracies meaning the whole world or just their local area? My point is that the bible uses the same words to mean different things its called symbolic language of...

No I don't know that at all the point is that you still haven't answered our questions and avoid them with the same repeated statement that never answered the questions. What did Jesus and the Pharracies mean when they said the word "world"?