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All good questions to ask. Let me comment on the first two: The concept of "original sin" inherited from Adam as part of the human condition (to be distinguished from "actual sin," the product of our free will choices) is all that could apply to a child in the womb or below the age of...

Good morning, @Soulx3. I've answered this already, but let me elaborate a bit: Psalm 5:4 says God and sin can't dwell together. John 1:14 says God in the form of Jesus became incarnate and dwelt with sinners -- clearly an exception to the Psalm's statement. You are the one who suggested that...

Really? Did the centurion who wanted Jesus to heal his servant approached Jesus in person (Matthew 8:5-13) or send an intermediary (Luke 7:2-10)? Were there two demoniacs whose demons were sent into a herd of swine (Matt 8:28) or only one (Mark 5:2, Luke 8:27)? Was the transfiguration six days...

Is John 1:14 wrong when it says that Jesus dwelt among us sinners? I think we've beaten this one to death. Let's agree to disagree and move on. We certainly won't be able to agree that Scripture is never wrong, because I am convinced it is chock full of inconsistencies.

Are you asking me whether Psalm 5:4 is inconsistent with John 1:14? It won't be the first tine two Bible passages are inconsistent! I am inclined to put my money on John 1:14.

Again, if Jesus can make his dwelling among sinners for 30+ years, he can gestate in the womb of a sinner -- which you say counts as "dwelling" -- for 9 months.

How is it that Jesus can dwell among sinners, but cannot be born of one? That doesn't make sense to me. If he can do the one, he can do the other.

You misunderstand the "dwell" reference in the Psalm. It means to make one's home with, not to gestate. And you are forgetting John 1:14's "and the Word became flesh and dwelt among us" sinners. Your interpretation of the Psalm would make John's statement impossible.

I've answered this before, but will again: Yes, I believe that God could have or could have not done this. I don't know which. But I'm strongly leaning towards NOT.

There is a little of that mentioned in Scripture. Like the witch of Endor in 1 Sam. 28. Or the parable of Lazarus in Luke 16.

By praying to a dead person, I mean praying to someone who has died physically. Praying "for" a dead person (as in 2 Maccabees) is quite different, and I have no issue with that. Catholics pray "to" dead saints all the time, seeking intercession.

I'm not aware of a single Biblical reference to anyone praying to a dead person. I'm aware of Jesus praying to God on the cross and being misunderstood as praying to Elijah. That drew a reaction from some bystanders to get him a drink! I don't know how to interpret the incident. Maybe prayer...

Don't we need to define "Scripture" first before this debate can go anywhere? @Soulx3 needs to explain why he gives a twentieth century writing that stature.

What I think you are missing is the phenomena of believers conforming their wills to God's will, so as "both to will and to do of his good pleasure." That does not mean free will doesn't exist. It's why we pray "“Thy will be done on earth, as it is in heaven." That's not a waste of breath...

The latter. If God was controlling Adam and Eve's actions, stationing cherubim with a fiery sword at the gates of Eden to make sure they didn't sneak back into the Garden and grab some fruit off the tree of life would have been unnecessary.

I wasn't around, so I don't know if the Beareans rejected any teachings of any apostles (maybe they never crossed paths with a single one of the original twelve or original seventy; maybe Paul told them, as he told the Galatians, about how Peter couldn't be trusted to get things right). I'd...

I'm watching a baseball game as I write this. Sometimes the pitcher throws a fastball, sometimes a curve ball; sometimes the pitch is over the plate, sometimes not; sometimes the batter swings, sometimes he doesn't, and when he does, sometimes he misses, sometimes he connects; when the ball is...

And if you go to the ER and the doctors pump your stomach, will it be because the Lord has caused it to happen?

I don't think it sounded right to Luke either. Luke equates salvation with forgiveness of sin in Luke 1:77. Yet Luke 1:47 quotes Mary as referring to “God my Savior.” Why would she need a Savior if she was sinless?

Is this why He cannot forgive the sins of mankind as an exercise of divine mercy without having His Son nailed to the cross?