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Was Jesus literally physically present during His literal physical first coming at His literal physical Olivet Discourse? Or was it all only virtual? :laughing:

You're too irrational to recognize your irrationality.

Paul wrote Galatians 3:16,29. He identified Abraham's descendants. So you believe that Paul was a funny racist who didn't understand what God had promised. Make sure you tell him when you exhume him. Tell us what he says. :laughing:

That bears exactly zero relationship to my post. Come back when you can talk rationally. If you can.

So you think that Paul must be confused about whom God blesses in Galatians 3:16,29. Exhume him and let him know how funny he is. Tell us what he says. :laughing:

Because that was when the conditions were met for Christ to announce the arrival of the Kingdom of God prophesied in Daniel 2:44. To God and His Son, it was very much about a secular kingdom, for it was God's chosen time, place, and conditions for the announcement.

True. And He established it during the secular kingdom of Rome. He said that the time for its fulfillment had arrived. But you've said that this is not about secular kingdoms. How do you resolve the incongruity?

This guy is a trademark cultist trying to pass himself off as an historicist. There's a continual stream of nonsense emanating therefrom. :laughing:

So He didn't establish it when Jesus announced it in Mark 1:14,15?

Why do Roman empire kings, e.g. Tiberius, not qualify as some of "these kings"?

Why would the explicit announcement of the Kingdom of God in Mark 1:14,15 not be the fulfillment of the explicit prophecy of the Kingdom of God in Daniel 2:44?

Mark 1 14 Now after that John was put in prison, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of the kingdom of God, 15 And saying, The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand: repent ye, and believe the gospel. Did this declaration by Jesus during Tiberius' reign mark the...

Bro, in the days of what king(s) did God set up His Kingdom as declared in Daniel 2:44?

He promised to bless Abraham, Christ, and those who are Christ's. No others.

What evidence is that? :laughing: Thanks for confirming that you're utterly incapable of identifying a single recognized Reformation historicist who corroborates your views on Daniel 2:44. Not one. You're a faux historicist. So where does that leave you? Just another cult on parade. :laughing:

Of course they did. Why did you omit this? Romans 1 1 Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God, 2 (Which he had promised afore by his prophets in the holy scriptures,) Now tell us why you suddenly abandoned Zechariah 13:7. :laughing:

Faux historicists pay no attention to anything. More cultic semantic ignorance. Tiberius ruled in "the days of these kings"; specifically, in the days of the kings of the Roman empire. So did the kings of the four empires, the last of which was the Roman empire, during which Christ set up the...

Here's what He promised. Galatians 3 16 Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ. 29 And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.

Just leave what you don't understand for those who do. :laughing:

Paul still used "naos" regardless of whether you believe God's Word or not.