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Yes. This is based on how they dealt with Christ when he told them in essence that he was the Fathers Son. They were mad that he was apparently trying to make himself equal with the Father (a second being as God) as all first born sons would be in a Jewish family. So the error for the Jews is...

The question is never about whether one has stopped sinning, it is whether one is supposed to! So answer the question in straight out English; It is your opinion that it is ok with the Father and Christ that believers can continue to knowingly sin because Christ already paid the ticket for...

A cult is only interested in how much money they can make and their public image which plays on income as well.

Let's maybe look at this another way. God is the designer for every mechanical system in existence right? Now suppose that when he designed milk the intent was that milk would be a life sustaining part of everyone's existence and as I have noticed there are a number of references God makes in...

bbyrd009 said "i am not disagreeing, but that is not the end of that story either, as grace is also an opportunity for forgiveness." Sin more so that Grace may abound?

from the post you made that I quoted from

And I am not promoting you do anything different. I would say that it may be morally offensive to God since they designed mothers milk to be the very thing to keep the young alive.

For those of you who are promoting that believers cannot sin I have this question for you. If the old covenant is done away with from the moment Christ was sacrificed does this mean that no one including Jew or gentile non-believers can sin since sin has always been the transgression of the law?

that was because of all the pagan religions who had multiple god's but since the pagan religions have been successfully integrated into Christianity from long in its past there is no need for that action any more. Now the pagans can simply look at God as a trinity even though God states that...

A really great question here is why did God command that action? It obviously has no bearing on the love your neighbor side of the laws that are to be written in the heart which leaves this one on the Love God side of the coin....

What? Are you promoting that one should sin so that grace may abound?

and yet the NT definitely delineates that it is natural Jew first so, since scripture cannot contradict itself you have a conundrum on your hands. of course knowing the scripture that states that the word came to the Jew first might lend some understanding on this point since God is a God of order.

Finally... It is your opinion that it is ok with the Father and Christ that believers can continue to knowingly sin because Christ already paid the ticket for every sin they will ever commit? If you don't think that sums up what your saying then make clarifications where applicable

This is not a question that holds any relevancy to whether or not one it is ok to be willfully sinning in the first place? The only possible rationale for such a question would be to assert that if you haven't reached a sinless state yet that it can't in fact be done which ultimately is teaching...

You apparently don't accept anything at all which is expected since you didn't answer whether adultery was under the new covenant or not nor whether even lusting in the heart is. If you want to be part of the new covenant (since there is only one covenant) then you are included in the entirety...

They are indeed similar but there is a difference, the first is how we deal with God and the second is how we deal with other created beings. Both together encompass the entirety of the law and prophets not one by itself. Love is the foundation for both commandments / laws There are no...

We are in high school now

Of course we are not under the very limited kindergarten laws given by Moses. That law was given as examples of God's way. The Israelites were to gain understanding of Gods ways from those simple rules and grow from them and be ready for when Christ would come and EXPAND the law under the new...

Umm not Quite. There were two tablets given in the OT and if you pay attention to the scriptures that you referenced God said I will put my "LAWS" in their heart. So, there is not just one law. Now I am not just going to give you the answer to what you missed since we as Christians are supposed...

If sin no longer reigns in your mortal body (the flesh) then your assertion is that neither your spirit nor the fleshly body it inhabits performs any sinful acts, is this correct? And to be clear here SIN is the breaking of the intent of actual laws of God right?