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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    3. the whole multitude of men living at the same time: Matthew 24:34; What recognized Greek expert disagrees with James Strong about that? Is there evidence that James Strong did not put his trust in the Holy Spirit?
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    There is no justification for performing such a "clawback" that I can see in Matthew 24. "Therefore" Scripturally, logically, and reasonably connects verse 14 to verse 15.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Post 885. Applicable as well to Matthew 23.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Today the Jewish race is ubiquitous across humanity, because after more than three millennia of natural genetic dispersion and diffusion, the Abrahamic genome is present in the entire population. Thus, all of us are Jews, just as all of us are Gentiles. So to define "generation" racially means...
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Here are some of Strong's definitions of "therefore": 1. οὖν a conjunction indicating that something follows from another necessarily; 2. Hence, it is used in drawing a conclusion and in connecting sentences together logically, then, therefore, accordingly, consequently, these things being so...
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    His Greek, which he has used to the vast benefit of the Church, is better than yours and mine.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Depends on the definition. If we define the old covenant age to include its physical trappings and vestiges, then it does extend to 70 AD.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Yes. So I don't have confidence in you, nor you in me.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    In Matthew 24:15 we see "therefore". We know the question. sml What is it there for?
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    I believe that it ended at Calvary. 70 AD was God's judgment and punishment on apostate Israel, and the destruction of the last physical trappings and vestiges of that old covenant, which had ended at Calvary.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    I'm confident in Strong's mastery of the Greek.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    First answer my question.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    In what verse does Jesus tell His disciples when the temple would be destroyed? Copy/paste my alleged claim that that is the end of the old covenant.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    See post 849.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Does He tell His disciples when the temple will be destroyed?
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    I've addressed everything that I intend to address.
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    So, He loved them to the end of the world which had not and has not yet occurred?
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Was He fixated on it while delivering His Olivet Discourse?
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Yes. He had loved (past tense) them, and He continued (past tense) to love them for the duration of His time with them before His departure. Nothing to do with the end of the world. :laughing:
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    When did the 2nd temple literally initially cease being the holy place?

    Jesus was the greatest preterist who ever lived. He fulfilled every one of the OT prophecies about Himself long before 70 AD.
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