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I don't think that can be entirely tru, because God's grace is spoken of in the Old Testament as well as the New. For example: (Gen 6:8) But Noah found grace in the eyes of the LORD. (Ezr 9:8) And now for a little while grace has been shown from the LORD our God, to leave us a remnant to...

I would say that it isn't the process that is called grace. God's grace is indeed His undeserved favour, and that is not a process. Rather, it is an attribute of God: (Psa 116:5) Gracious is the LORD, and righteous; Yes, our God is merciful.

Do you mean that we are justified, sanctified and glorified by our own efforts?

I am truly sorry if my post made me sound like a headmaster; that was certainly not my intention. And of course, what you say about not having to agree with what others post is right. On a forum like this, we are bound to encounter different view and beliefs to our own. Anyway, I do apologise...

It is strange that instead of answering what I posted, you just post a link to another website, which doesn't address the points i raised. However, it is, of course, entirely up to you how you choose to respond, so I'm nt really complaining.

I followed the link. Just to take two of the verses the link quotes as examples, the linked document states: "The command to ‘study’ the Bible is changed to 'be diligent' from II Timothy 2:15 thereby removing the Bible's only admonition to 'study." However, the word translated in the KJV as...

Sorry, I don't think I mentioned the MKJV.

I don't think that follows at all. Because the English language has changed over the past few hundred years since 1611, of course the NKJV is not always going to use exactly the same words as the KJV. For example, when the KJV used the phrase, "fetched a compass", it meant "turned around", so...

Yes, that refers to footnotes, not to the translation itself. I know that some editions of the KJV included footnotes or margin notes with words like: "Some manuscripts do not include this verse." Marginal notes and footnotes are not translations of God's inspired word.

I have just looked through the Preface in my NKJV. It includes: "The New King James Version has been based on the Received Text, thus perpetuating the tradition begun by William Tyndale in 1525 and continued by the 1611 translators in rendering the Authorised Version" (i.e. the KJV)

Yes it's in the NKJV, and it is italicized, just as it is in the KJV, to show that the word was inserted by the translators to make normal English. If, in English, someone said, "Two were in the field," the obvious question arises, "Two what? Sheep, cattle-rustlers, farmers, insects?"

But the free gift is only there because mankind rebelled against God. God Who is perfectly holy, decreed that those who sin deserve His judgment. We reads in the bible, and surely know from our own experience, that we are all sinners. Just think of Jesus Christ's summary of the commandments...

Yes, and Jesus Christ is the one Who could say to His enemies: "Which of you convicts Me of sin?" (John 8:46) And at His trial, the chief priests had to find false witnesses in order to accuse Him.

I didn't say it was. Jesus used it in His answer to those who had asked Him, "Is it lawful to heal on the Sabbath?" when He was about to heal the man with the withered hand. He was pointing to the hypocrisy of His questioners, who would have no qualms about pulling a sheep out of a ditch on...

When Jesus spoke of doing good on the sabbath, it was in the context of healing, not doing a job like collecting firewood which, like collectin manna, could have been done the previous day: (Mat 12:10) And behold, there was a man who had a withered hand. And they asked Him, saying, "Is it...

I must immediately assure you that I certainly don't agree with translating the Hebrew word for "God" as feminine for any woke agenda. I hope you didn't imagine that I was arguing for such a thing. I wasn't.

That may be so, but Hebrew does have a word for "female", as in: (Gen 1:27) So God created man in His own image; in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them. So if there was not word in Hebrew for a female "god", wouldn't the divinely-inspired authors have added the...

So if the word can be used to mean a female "god," its gender must be grammatical, rather than connected with the meaning of the word. I notice that the New Testament uses a Greek word that actually means "goddess" (in the passage about Diana of the Ephesians). The Old Testament uses exactly...

Just asking, not being argumentative, why is the same Hebrew word "Elohim" used when referring to the false goddess Ashtoreth: (1Ki 11:5) For Solomon went after Ashtoreth the goddess of the Sidonians, and after Milcom the abomination of the Ammonites.

No, God the Father did not create God the Son. John 1:1-3 & 14 make this clear: (Joh 1:1) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (Joh 1:2) He was in the beginning with God. (Joh 1:3) All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made...