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That may be so, but Hebrew does have a word for "female", as in: (Gen 1:27) So God created man in His own image; in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them. So if there was not word in Hebrew for a female "god", wouldn't the divinely-inspired authors have added the...

So if the word can be used to mean a female "god," its gender must be grammatical, rather than connected with the meaning of the word. I notice that the New Testament uses a Greek word that actually means "goddess" (in the passage about Diana of the Ephesians). The Old Testament uses exactly...

Just asking, not being argumentative, why is the same Hebrew word "Elohim" used when referring to the false goddess Ashtoreth: (1Ki 11:5) For Solomon went after Ashtoreth the goddess of the Sidonians, and after Milcom the abomination of the Ammonites.

No, God the Father did not create God the Son. John 1:1-3 & 14 make this clear: (Joh 1:1) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (Joh 1:2) He was in the beginning with God. (Joh 1:3) All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made...

They are exceptions, and they are not grammatical genders anyway. Also, we are not really saying that our cars or ships are female. What about all the other nouns in English, "nail", "dinner", "money", "cloud," for example? In some languages, they, like all nouns, have a grammatical gender...

I will say this once more and then leave it. Some languages have grammatical gender, with every noun being either masculine, feminine, or neuter. This grammatical gender does not refer to the actual gender of thing referred to by the noun. For example, in French, "voiture" (car) and "table"...

I agree that is wrong to use inclusive language when the original Hebrew or Greek word means specifically either male or female, but that is not the same thing as grammatical gender. You wrote: "Many translations (NRSV, NIV, etc.) include passages describing God using maternal metaphors, such...

But (s I understand it, (and I don't claim to know biblical Greek or Hebrew) "Elohim" is not just grammatically masculine. Its meaning is masculine too - it refers to a male Being. By "grammatical gender" I meant Hebrew words like "erets" which although grammatically feminine, means "land"...

I don't agree. Grammatical gender has little to do with actual meaning. I do agree that if the actual meaning of a Hebrew or Greek word specifies actual male or female, then it is wrong to translate it to include both male and female, but if it's merely grammatical gender, there is no way of...

Do you mean that, like French, nouns in Greek and Hebrew have grammatical gender? (To give examples of what I mean, the French for "the table" is "la table," a grammatically feminine noun. However, English does not use grammatical gender, so we just translate "la table" as "the table." My...

I would be if the punishment for my sins had not been taken by the Lord Jesus Christ. Praise God, He is my Saviour! (1Pe 2:24) who Himself bore our sins in His own body on the tree, that we, having died to sins, might live for righteousness—by whose stripes you were healed. As Horatio...

It's only "to day" (two words) in the KJV, because that is the way English worked at that time. The online etymological dictionary entry for "today" includes these words: "Generally it was written as two words until 16c., after which it usually was written to-day until early 20c."

I followed your link, and it just took me to the results of a search on DuckDuckGo, including the website of Eden Christian Books, The website of Bible Hub, various sites giving various "EGW Writings," and more. Would it not be more useful to link to the site which actually teaches that the...

Not only so, but Ephesians 2:10 makes clear that good works should follow salvation: (Eph 2:10 NKJV) For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand that we should walk in them. Certainly we don't do good works in order to achieve or to keep...

But Shem's parents (Noah and his wife) were both pre- and post-flood.

Do you ascribe your healing to the oil, to the act of anointing yourself, or to God? If to God, why not just pray? I cannot think of any instance in the bible where Christians are told to anoint themselves to be healed. There is a verse in James that talks of calling for the elders of the...

Thanks for the thought-provoking reply, Fred.

From what Scripture tells us, that is not clear, in my view. I have read of some who say that Melchizedek was a theophany or Christophany. Others say that he was a human priest. So my answer to your question, I'm afraid, is, "I don't know." Sorry.

Certainly some of the descendants of Shem were blessed. According to the genealogy in Luke 3 they included Abraham, David, and eventually, as far as His human nature was concerned, Jesus Himself. Anyway, what difference does it make whether or not Shem's sons were blessed? I was answering a...

The pre-existence of Jesus is shown in various places in Scripture. Somebody has already quoted John 1:1-3. Then there these words of Jesus to His heavenly Father: (Joh 17:5) And now, O Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was. If...