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Same Person.

Jesus became a Man when He incarnated in Luke 1:35. In a sense true; since the Person of the Son was created at the incarnation; who also ascended to be outside of time. Therefore, dwelling in eternity, He is a Man from everlasting to everlasting.

I think you mean 1 John 3:23.

Actually, being under the law to Christ means that one is governed by the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus. This means that they bear the fruit of the Spirit against which there is no law (Galatians 5:22-23). So there is a righteousness of the Lord apart from the law that is...

I don't think that they were lying. They were teaching the Bible under the anointing and unction of the Holy Ghost.

No; it is a combination of 1 Peter 1:5 (kjv) and 1 John 5:18. See also Jude 1:21. 1Pe 1:5, Who are kept by the power of God through faith unto salvation ready to be revealed in the last time.

Incarnationists? Have you never read 1 John 4:1-3, 2 John 1:7?

Personally, I don't believe that there is any difference between the two; they are synonymous.

Obviously, because of Revelation 3:21. Jesus is the Lamb who sits upon the throne.

Never been taught on the issue, so no.

The answer is found in Matthew 7:23 and Matthew 13:41-42. I think that one of them trusted in Jesus and His shed blood and the other didn't. So, the iniquities of the latter were evident on her day of judgment; while the iniquities of the former were covered by the blood.

Sure He does...it says so in Hebrews 1:8-9. The God of God as He dwells in flesh is the God who is a Spirit who inhabits eternity. In Oneness, Jesus is His own God as He dwells in another "place".

Okay, I accept that. The devil is not invisible to Jesus. he was probably the first one to leave when Jesus called them out on their sins.

I think also that the accuser was there steaming in his hatred towards the adulterous woman because Jesus forgave her.

I find that all the cults deny that the holy scriptures were correctly translated in the kjv.

And God also has a God (Hebrews 1:8-9).

Have you considered, in the kjv, that God has a Father? Rev 1:6, And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.

How do you figure? Because I repeat what I have said on many occasions before? I consider that Ecclesiastes 11:6 and 2 Corinthians 9:6 are verses that I want to apply as wisdom.

I consider that Jesus released the Holy Ghost to the Father in Luke 23:46; and that the Holy Ghost ascended to be outside of time (Ephesians 4:10) and was thereafter capable of descending to any place in time in order that He might dwell in the hearts of prophets and saints at any time in...

Curious...who was it?