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I would say in Matthew 28:19. In that verse there is one name mentioned and yet three Persons with that one name. Which would indicate one God in three Persons. Thus the equation 1 x 1 x 1 = 1. The point being that the situation described there is substantiated by a valid math equation.

That's because the equation is to be processed in multiplication.

All scripture is inspired by God and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; but what is written later is built on what was written before and rests as the conclusions of what was written before. Also, new revelation in scripture (such as...

Hey Groper (@bbyrd009), I am curious; what does wadr mean?

Yeah, but what does it mean?

1 x 1 x 1 = 1

No; however the Bible is a progressive revelation. Therefore what is written later is more important than what is written before. In this case, the Word became flesh, who was God in the beginning, shows that at some point in history God became a Man, although He was not a Man previous to that.

I don't disagree with you there. In my view, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost is the Most High.

Everything must be taken in its historical context.

In Oneness tradition, God is one Person. He is a Spirit who became a Man, who released His Spirit back to the Spirit that was His former self. Who then gave His Spirit to the church and came and indwelt us by His Spirit. ONE Spirit, ONE Lord, ONE God (Ephesians 4:4-6). SAME Spirit, SAME...

Okay, I am now very curious...what does WADR stand for?

That is referring to God the Father. And, at that time in history, He had not yet become a Man.

I'm not sure that there is any scripture that declares that if you deny the Trinity you are outside of the body of Christ. The Deity of Christ, yes (John 8:24). The Trinity, no. btw, I personally do believe in the Trinity; but I do not exclude from salvation, for example, the Oneness...

Everyone comes across spiritual truth in a slightly different order, and their views on what the scripture teaches may be affected by that order and also by the circumstances in which they are ministered to by specific scriptures. God has created us, and caused our lives to progress, in such a...

As I said previously:

In His humanity the Son is less than the Father; but in His Deity He is equal--John 5:18. The doctrine that we need to think of here when considering John 14:28 is the hypostatic union--that Jesus is both God and Man. In His humanity He is finite. 'nuff said!

Also, there is one Lord (Ephesians 4:5), the Father (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21). And no one can say that Jesus is the Lord except by the Holy Ghost (1 Corinthians 12:3). So then, how will the Son be subject to the Father, since they are the same Lord (1 Corinthians 12:5, 2 Corinthians 8:19)...

2 Corinthians 5:17 is the reason why we obey the law (refrain from sinning, since sin is the transgression of the law) as Christians. The law is written in our hearts and on our minds in the New Covenant (Hebrews 8:8-10, Hebrews 10:16, Romans 8:4, Romans 8:7); and therefore it governs us from...

I normally respond to latter posts before I respond to the earlier ones; as a kind of self-fulfilled prophecy that the last shall be first and the first shall be last.

Again, teachers in the body of Christ are there ministering out of their spiritual gifts, many of them in the power of the Holy Spirit, and therefore we ought to discern who the faithful ones are and listen to them. Be a Berean (Acts of the Apostles 17:11). Study to shew thyself approved (2...