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If Jesus was the Father, then he fathered himself, which means the son impregnated the mother, which means we see the Nimrod/Semeramis story with Christian clothes on. Now you see why the RCC is so closely married to the incarnation idea.

Spirit is flesh? Spirit became a microscopic sperm cell to mate with Mary's egg? It is easier to say the Spirit became a full grown man instantly, right?

Most say the logos became flesh. This means Spirit became flesh, which directly contradicts Jesus' description of God in John 4:24.

I was oneness. Also, Jesus claimed no individual deity, but another's deity inside him. The Col 2:9 effect on him after his resurrection made him(his inner) God by default, which the unitarian refuses to realize.

You know, I taught the Father is the son for over 30 years. I know all about that stuff. I miraculously shook the hook somehow and gave Jesus back his Biblical identity as an individual with a God. Presupposition can be a curse.

The logos made Jesus and was in Jesus. It is really that simple. The logos did not "become" Jesus, then spoke through Himself(as most surmise).

Was the Spirit incarnated or fertilizing the woman's egg? Were we incarnated from 2 parents or begotten?

The son of God was not God, but the son of God(and Mary). However, the Father of the son was inside the son so this was the vessel that interacted with Satan. If any part of the son was God, then Satan caught God at a moment of weakness, since God was fasting and hungered.

That is what I have been saying all along. Just be cause someone has the Holy Ghost inside them does not qualify them as God. Only the Col 2:9 effect can qualify them, but they first must be made a quickening spirit and omnipresent to accomplish this feat.

Is Jesus also implying he was God in the following chapter too?... 24 God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.

You just described the son impregnating his mother.

And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God. Really? There is zero resemblance to your description of the verse. This is how the Bible get's mistranslated(classic example for all to see).

If the son was the Spirit, God, and God impregnated Mary, then the son(God) impregnated Mary.

Just explain this to me in your understanding of it, because it looks like Jesus is saying God alone is good here, not himself... And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.

Satan knew that God was inside His only begotten son, then Satan got an earful from the son's inner God.

The son of God impregnated his mother?

God sent Himself?

And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.

38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

He was made good by the Col 2:9 effect on his spirit body after resurrecting. Prior to that, he was vulnerable to failure, but survived somehow....he was human and knew it. That is why he shrugged off the man that called him good, and said ONLY God is good.