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Did God slay them for no reason?

If they were "His people", why did He slay them?

Were the Israelites that God slew, "His people"?

God's covenant conditions of faith and obedience have never changed. Thousands of slain Israelites are the testimony.

You don't consider children to be people? What do you consider them to be?

Those faithful and obedient to God and His Son inside and outside of the 12 tribes were and are the covenant people of God. No others.

God's Chosen Nation is those faithful and obedient to Him and His Son. AKA His Church. 1 Peter 2:9 No searching needed.

What is the Scriptural definition of "corporate election of being a Jew"? Book, chapter, and verse please. To reiterate, there can be no "chosen nation" if the individuals who comprise the nation are not chosen. You say you "couldn't say", after Jesus declared that they were going to hell...

A nation is comprised of its individuals. A nation cannot be chosen if its individuals are not chosen. Were the scribes and Pharisees in Matthew 23:33 chosen?

The scribes and Pharisees were Jews. Were they chosen? Matthew 23 33 Ye serpents, ye generation of vipers, how can ye escape the damnation of hell?

The only people of God are those in the Body of Christ. As John has declared. No others.

You can't be serious. God didn't consider it irrelevant. He slew thousands on multiple occasions. Would you like to tell us why? If you think it's irrelevant, then maybe God just enjoyed wasting Israelites? Please enlighten us.

Circumcision was the sign of faith and obedience. Subsequent unfaithfulness and disobedience was a death sentence. God slew thousands of circumcised Israelites who apostasized into unfaithfulness and disobedience. Their circumcision did not save them.

Do you not understand that the NT people of God are one and the same as the NT Body of Christ, in which circumcision availeth nothing? Galatians 5:6 For in Jesus Christ neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision; but faith which worketh by love. Galatians 6:15 For in Christ...

God made a covenant with those faithful and obedient to Him within the 12 tribes. He did not make a covenant with the unfaithful and disobedient within the 12 tribes. Instead, He slew them by the thousands.

No. Have you so soon forgotten the Scriptures I provided of the Gentiles within Israel, who today follow the religion of the Jews i.e. talmudism? They were and are known as proselytes. They exist by the multitude today, around the world.

Unsurprisingly, you continue to confuse race and religion. Perhaps you don't realize what you are doing. It is Jews by religion of whom John wrote, those who deny the Son and thus also deny the Father. Multitudes exist today 2,000 years later.

You brought up "naturalization" which you're unable to corroborate from the NT; and the NT people of God are one and the same as the NT Body of Christ, in which circumcision availeth nothing. Galatians 5:6 For in Jesus Christ neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision; but...

Yes, although the term does not appear in Scripture. However, if you can point to NT Scripture which describes your process of "naturalization", then your use thereof can be acceptable.

This is the only applicable Scriptural "naturalization" of which I'm aware: 1 Corinthians 2 14 But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned. Where in Christian historical...