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Israel is overwhelmingly secular, and thus already serving Satan. Satan has no need to, and does not, persecute those who are already serving him.

Thank you bro. You may use it unreservedly in your own inspirational exegeses. Thanks.

Futurista and Preterista. :laughing: Both originated in the domicile of the Cosa Nostra. :laughing:

What to believe? 1. Two centuries of modernist dispensational delusion and denial. 2. Seventeen centuries of historical united orthodox Christian testimony. No viable case hint needed.

Point out in pre-19th century orthodox Christian history where any recognized defender of the true faith denied that Daniel 9:24 has been fulfilled.

Thanks Chris. Minor correction: others' teaching

Every one of your posts is a confirmation. Keep them coming. Thank you.

Thanks again.

Thanks for the confirmation.

You don't know whether He did or did not prompt you?

You said "If I said it was the Holy Spirit that prompted me to arrive at this conclusion..." So did He prompt you to arrive at your conclusion, or did He not?

You missed the word "If". "If" you don't want to uncover anyone, then don't.

I'm certainly willing to agree to disagree, but we can't both be right, since the nobleman cannot be both Christ and Satan, and the kingdom cannot be the kingdom of both God and Satan. If you can uncover anyone who agrees with you, in this forum, or in orthodox Christianity past or present...

It is the inescapable conclusion of what you said. It is the same kingdom, because the grammatical referent of "kingdom" in the parable is the "kingdom of God" in verse 11. I've shown you via the application of grammatical referents, which you ignore. You know nothing until you've begun by...

Whom to believe? 1. You 2. Strong Need a hint?

So what you are really saying is that grammar is completely irrelevant to Scriptural interpretation, and that interpretation is what you (and by logical extension, anyone else) think it should be. AKA Judges 17:6,21:25. AKA all pathways lead to God. AKA universalism.

Scripture clearly tells you that God had not yet created mankind. Why do you deny it? Must be that dispen apostate Jesuit spirit stuck in your mind? From Job 38:7 Hebrew: ◄ 430. elohim ► c. angels Psalm 97:7 (ᵐ5 ᵑ6 Calv; but gods, Hup De Pe Che); compare בני (ה)אלהים = (the) sons of God...

The first priority of interpretation is the application of the objective rules of grammar. You haven't recognized how the expression "kingdom of God" is the objective grammatical referent of all occurrences of "kingdom" which follow in the parable.

Luke 19:11-15KJV 11 And as they heard these things, he added and spake a parable, because he was nigh to Jerusalem, and because they thought that the kingdom of God should immediately appear. It is plain that the purpose of Jesus' parable was to correct misapprehension regarding the kingdom of...

Job 38 6 Whereupon are the foundations thereof fastened? or who laid the corner stone thereof; 7 When the morning stars sang together, and all the sons of God shouted for joy? When God laid the corner stone of the earth, He had not yet created mankind. So how could the sons of God in Job 38:7...