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Good grief - I'm sure your allies here are cringing right about now . . . Whether English existed before Greek or centuries later is totally irrelevant. And whether a word develops over a year - or over 5 centuries is equally-irrelevant. As I educated you before - a translation is simply a...

No you don't - and I believe I have A<PLY illustrated this to anyone reading . . . Your ignorance is frightening. The fact that you don't have the slightest grasp of the concept of translation is just frightening . . .

Those words and terms (like "Bishop") already existed in Greek. They weren't "invented" later. They were simply TRANSLATED into another language. Do you even understand what "translate" means?

No - it's just painfully-clear that you simply DON'T understand how languages work.

TRY me. I will wait here for your answer . . . And I know SEVERAL Protestant scholars who believe this about the Catholic Church. J.N.D. Kelley, for one. Ken Samples from CRI is another. Your Protestant Fathers are yet another good example.

You REALLY don't understand languages - DO you? The word, "Episkopos" didn't jump from Greek to English in ONE shot. It developed etymologically like ALL words do. The Greek Episkopos translates into Latin Episcopus (Spanich, Obispos) which translates into English as Bishop. There ends the...

Can you list 5 reputable Protestant scholars who agree with that claim? How about THREE.

TRANSLATION: "You nailed me again! I'd better shut up now . . ."

And you can jeep vomiting out that lie - but I have already PROVEN you wrong . . .

No, but when I can PROVE it, as I have with YOU - that's another kettle of fish . . .

Youve NO grasp of languages. Is it a sofa or a couch? Groceries or foodstuffs? Things or objects? I can translate ALL of those words in Spanish and they would have the SAME definition as the English word.

And this post is nothing but deflective tactic to take attention away from the gact that I NAILED you again for LYING.

Are you STILL using this asinine argument?? Bishop is an exact translation of Episkopos. Catholic Church is an exact translation of Ekklesia Kata Holos. Eucharist is an exact translation of the GREEK word, Eucharista. What aren’t you objecting to EVERY word in Ignatius’s Letter, then? Follow...

No – it’s because YOU have a penchant for LYING. I proved to you that the Catholic Church existed from the FIRST century, as shown in Ignatius’s Letter to the Smyrnaeans. YOU claimed that it didn’t exist until the almost the FOURTH century. As I warned you before - I will expose your lies at...

Define WHO?? In the depths of your ignorance - YOU conflate a Liturgical Rite with a Church. Do you even understand the difference?

Limited Atonement, as Calvin taught was for a select number of predestined people. That is what I am arguing against. He taught that God actually created some for eternal damnation and others for salvation. This is heresy, according to Scripture. God WILLS the salvation of ALL people (1 Tim...

Jesus was the propitiation of ALL sin for ALL time and the debt had been removed. BUT – it ONLY apples to those who have repented and been Baptized. The ticket into Heaven had been purchased – for EVERYONE. BUT - NOT everyone will accept that ticket. John 3:16 “For God so loved the world, that...

I don’t know how that text got inserted. I never typed that. I never even thought it. Bizarre . . .

The point is that your argument about the Coptic rite “preceding” the Catholic Church is nonsense. It wasn’t a Church – but a Liturgical Rite. There is a Coptic Orthodox Church – but as we know from history – that split didn’t occur until the 11th century.

You have repeatedly proven that you are NOT a student of history. First of all - the Coptic Rite is one of the Liturgical Rites of the CATHOLIC CHURCH. Secondly – NOTHING predated the Catholic Church by 250 years. We read about the “Catholic Church” in the Letter to the Smyrnaenas, written by...