Communion - Lord's Supper - Eucharist

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BreadOfLife

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True, the church doesn't but the RC denomination does.... as dogma since 1551.

No, it doesn't hold that the "forms" change, it reaches that the bread and wine CHANGE - via the precise, technical, physical mechanism of an alchemic "transubstantiation" (the very word it uses for this "change" comes from alchemy; there are several Latin words for "change" that the RC does NOT use, it uses the very technical, specific word from alchemy).

Jesus and Paul (and the ECF) said "IS". Not "CHANGED from one reality to a foreign one via the precise, technical physical mechanism of an alchemic transubstantiation leaving behind a mixture of reality and Aristotelian accidents."

Jesus and Paul (and the ECF) said "IS' 'BODY' 'BLOOD' 'FORGIVENESS." NOT "is not" "seems like but isn't" "Just the chemical properties of" "change" "alchemy" "transubstantiation" "Aristotle" "accidents" IF you actually read what Jesus said and Paul penned, you'll see Real Presence but NOTHING about this weird, medieval, RC invention of Transubstantiation. Nothing. And you keep proving it.

When you make up your mind, let us know. "Properties" is simply a MUCH more simple and modern word for "accidents." Aristotle held that the "properties" (if you prefer the more generic and modern word) of reality can exist after the reality has ceased to exist. This is what those medieval RC denomination "Scholastics" claimed is the case after the Consecration - we have Aristotelian ACCIDENTS. I realize the RCC has tended to not use the words "Aristotle" or "accidents" since Vatican II (preferring the word "appearances") but the dogma IS that this alchemic transubstantiation leaves behind a MIXTURE of reality (the RC says the Body and Blood are really real) and Aristotelian Accidents (the bread and wine only have the "properties" - if you prefer that far less technical word - of bread and wine).

I can understand why you feel the need to RUN from the new invention of your denomination, but it is what it is. And yes, you are right, the Scriptures all teach Real Presence but never your denomination's medieval nonsense.
Your use of the term "Alchemy" and "Alchemic Transubstantiation" is an ignorant one.
Alchemy is defined as the "transmutation of metals". NOWHERE does the Church ever use - or even allude to the words "alchemy" or "alchemic transubstantiation" or Aristotle - so your silly point here is moot.

As for Jesus and Paul using the words, "This IS my body" - that brings up an interesting point.
Since Jesus was merely holding up a piece of bread - why did He lie and say that it was His BODY - and not simply a piece of bread that was a "symbol" of His Body??
 

BreadOfLife

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And yes, you are right, the Scriptures all teach Real Presence but never your denomination's medieval nonsense.
And this is the point where I usually start laughing . . .

Soooooo, Jesus tells His Apostles that what He is holding in His hands IS His body - but YOU say it isn't because the word "transubstantiation" is not used.

YOU say that the Eucharist contains the "Real Presence" of Christ - but you completely reject the idea that it changed from mere bread.

Ummmmm, can you explain to me HOW it now contains the REAL Presence of Christ - yet it hasn't changed??
 

BreadOfLife

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True, the church doesn't but the RC denomination does.... as dogma since 1551..
For some reason – I keep forgetting to debunk your phony date of 1551 as the “Invention” of Transubstantiation.

The first time we see this word in the written form is by Hildebert of Tours in about 1079. We also see it in the writings of such theologians as Stephen of Autun (d. 1139), Gaufred (d. 1188), and Peter of Blois (d. 1200). At Lateran IV in 1215 and at the Council of Lyons in 1274 we see the very SAME expression.

As I have educated you repeatedly – the Church usually only defines a doctrine or dogma formally because of a challenge or outright heresy being taught. In this case – it was the many heresies of the Protestant Revolt that led the Church to declare and define a great many things at the Council of Trent (1545-1563).

Bottom line: You can't have the Real Presence WITHOUT a change to the substance. . .
 

Rollo Tamasi

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For some reason – I keep forgetting to debunk your phony date of 1551 as the “Invention” of Transubstantiation.

The first time we see this word in the written form is by Hildebert of Tours in about 1079. We also see it in the writings of such theologians as Stephen of Autun (d. 1139), Gaufred (d. 1188), and Peter of Blois (d. 1200). At Lateran IV in 1215 and at the Council of Lyons in 1274 we see the very SAME expression.

As I have educated you repeatedly – the Church usually only defines a doctrine or dogma formally because of a challenge or outright heresy being taught. In this case – it was the many heresies of the Protestant Revolt that led the Church to declare and define a great many things at the Council of Trent (1545-1563).

Bottom line: You can't have the Real Presence WITHOUT a change to the substance. . .
Are you kidding me?
Council of Trent
many heresies
such as protestants themselves
thus the inquisition full speed ahead
no the pope didn't kill anyone
he just got others to do his bidding for him
council of trent?
that translates - death to anyone not roman catholic
 

BreadOfLife

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Are you kidding me?
Council of Trent
many heresies
such as protestants themselves
thus the inquisition full speed ahead
no the pope didn't kill anyone
he just got others to do his bidding for him
council of trent?
that translates - death to anyone not roman catholic
And, as usual - you have completely missed the point of the conversation.
No big surprise there . . .

If you want to debate Trent - then start a thread, Einstein.
Otherwise - stick to the topic or get out of the way . . .
 

JesusIsFaithful

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The text above in RED from Paul's 1st Letter to the Corinthians seems a bit harsh for something that is merely a "symbol" - don't you think?

The plain fact of the matter is that the Real Presence is something that was taught and believed in from the very beginning of the Church. ALL of the Early Church Father UNANIMOUSLY believed in and taught this truth. There was not ONE single exception in the Early Church. In fact - the first time we read about people rejecting this truth is AFTER the Protestant Revolt in the 16th century. WHY is that??

Why don't we read about these Protestant objections for 1600 years??

WHY
did the Romans accuse the Early Christians of "cannibalism"??

Why did men like Ignatius of Antioch, who was a student of the Apostle John write that the Eucharist was the SAME flesh and blood that died for our sins and was raised from the dead (Letter to the Smyrnaeans 6:2-7:1 [A.D. 110]??

In the Bread of Life Discourse in John 6 - Jesus explains that we must EAT His flesh and DRINK His blood.
Interestingly enough - the Greek word used here for "eat" is NOT the usual word for human eating (Phagon). No - the word used here describes the way an animal rips apart his food (Trogon). This is hyperbole used to drive home an important point.

After most of the crowd leaves Him in John 6:66 - WHY didn't He explain to the Apostles in John 6:67 that He was just speaking "figuratively"?? Instead, He turns to them and asks "Do you ALSO want to leave?"

In Mark 4:33-34, we read:
With many similar parables Jesus spoke the word to them, as much as they could understand. He did not say anything to them without using a parable. But when he was alone with his own disciples, he explained everything.

Tell me - WHY didn't Jesus tell the Apostles that He was only speaking "figuratively" in John 6 if the passage above says He explained "EVERYTHING" to His inner circle??

I eagerly await your well-researched response.

Brother, and I do call you brother even though I am not Catholic, the disagreement that you and I have is based on how to read John 6th chapter. You read it as if Jesus is talking about communion. I read it as Jesus was talking about how to be saved.

The problem here is that Jesus was answering the request given by the Jews to give them this bread of life. Jesus told them how; by coming to and believing in Him, but Jesus went on to say they believe not BECAUSE their mindset was on eating an actual bread like their fathers did in eating manna.

So you have to decide if you want to not hear Him in how to receive the bread of life like the Jews didn't do when their mindset was on actually eating bread or you ask Him to help you see beyond what you have been taught by the Church what He was really saying to those that would believe in Him.

You can get lost in the sarcasm that Jesus spoke to the bread eating mindset non-believing Jews or you can ask Him to pay close attention to what He was saying in John 6th chapter on HOW to receive the bread of life in verse 35 right after the Jews had asked in in verse 34.

John 6:30 They said therefore unto him, What sign shewest thou then, that we may see, and believe thee? what dost thou work? 31 Our fathers did eat manna in the desert; as it is written, He gave them bread from heaven to eat. 32 Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Moses gave you not that bread from heaven; but my Father giveth you the true bread from heaven. 33 For the bread of God is he which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life unto the world. 34 Then said they unto him, Lord, evermore give us this bread. 35 And Jesus said unto them, I am the bread of life: he that cometh to me shall never hunger; and he that believeth on me shall never thirst. 36 But I said unto you, That ye also have seen me, and believe not.

If you doubt the true message of His words, then read it again below how he was not talking about receiving the bread of life like their fathers did with manna.

John 6:47 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life. 48 I am that bread of life. 49 Your fathers did eat manna in the wilderness, and are dead. 50 This is the bread which cometh down from heaven, that a man may eat thereof, and not die.

Jesus said again and again how to receive that bread of life by believing in Him to receive eternal life, but their mindset was on eating that bread of life, not by coming to and believing in Him.

If you read verse 35 above, if Jesus was talking about communion, then we would only eat it one to so that we do not make Him look like a liar in eating and drinking communion again for that would mean we are hungering and thirsting for it again when He said we would not be doing that.

So John 6th chapter cannot be about communion because His words would be denying His promise that we would never hunger nor thirst for that again. Jesus was talking about how to receive eternal life in reference to Him being that bread of life by coming to and believing in Him.

His promise is not matching how the CC is applying His words to communion or the Mass, but because the unbelieving Jews were having a hard time of it, is because their mindset was on eating that actual bread when Jesus was referring to Himself as being that bread of life, and His words to the unbelieving Jews whose mindset was eating that bread, could not get beyond that mindset as they were still rejecting coming to & believing in Jesus Christ for eternal life when they thought He meant eating His body and drinking His blood when He resorted to sarcasm because of their unbelief.

I see it as sarcasm when they kept failing or refusing to see how to receive that bread of life like He told them to... by coming to & believing in Him.
 

Philip James

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Brother, and I do call you brother even though I am not Catholic, the disagreement that you and I have is based on how to read John 6th chapter. You read it as if Jesus is talking about communion. I read it as Jesus was talking about how to be saved.

This is a false dichotomy.

Jesus is talking about how to be saved AND the Eucharist. The two are inseparably linked.

Peace!
 

JesusIsFaithful

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This is a false dichotomy.

Jesus is talking about how to be saved AND the Eucharist. The two are inseparably linked.

Peace!

The promise in John 6:35 cannot be applied to the Eucharist because that would mean after having received the Eucharist, you would no longer hunger for it. The same applies for no more thirsting after the wine.

This promise below:

Matthew 5:6 Blessed are they which do hunger and thirst after righteousness: for they shall be filled.

Is met by coming to & believing in Jesus Christ for your salvation.

John 6:35 And Jesus said unto them, I am the bread of life: he that cometh to me shall never hunger; and he that believeth on me shall never thirst.

Again..

John 6:47 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life. 48 I am that bread of life. 49 Your fathers did eat manna in the wilderness, and are dead. 50 This is the bread which cometh down from heaven, that a man may eat thereof, and not die.

Again.. the eating of the flesh profit nothing;

John 6:62 What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before? 63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life. 64 But there are some of you that believe not.

Because they believe not in Him even after His resurrection and ascension to the Father is why they did not receive the bread of life.
 

BreadOfLife

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Brother, and I do call you brother even though I am not Catholic, the disagreement that you and I have is based on how to read John 6th chapter. You read it as if Jesus is talking about communion. I read it as Jesus was talking about how to be saved.

The problem here is that Jesus was answering the request given by the Jews to give them this bread of life. Jesus told them how; by coming to and believing in Him, but Jesus went on to say they believe not BECAUSE their mindset was on eating an actual bread like their fathers did in eating manna.

So you have to decide if you want to not hear Him in how to receive the bread of life like the Jews didn't do when their mindset was on actually eating bread or you ask Him to help you see beyond what you have been taught by the Church what He was really saying to those that would believe in Him.

You can get lost in the sarcasm that Jesus spoke to the bread eating mindset non-believing Jews or you can ask Him to pay close attention to what He was saying in John 6th chapter on HOW to receive the bread of life in verse 35 right after the Jews had asked in in verse 34.

John 6:30 They said therefore unto him, What sign shewest thou then, that we may see, and believe thee? what dost thou work? 31 Our fathers did eat manna in the desert; as it is written, He gave them bread from heaven to eat. 32 Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Moses gave you not that bread from heaven; but my Father giveth you the true bread from heaven. 33 For the bread of God is he which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life unto the world. 34 Then said they unto him, Lord, evermore give us this bread. 35 And Jesus said unto them, I am the bread of life: he that cometh to me shall never hunger; and he that believeth on me shall never thirst. 36 But I said unto you, That ye also have seen me, and believe not.

If you doubt the true message of His words, then read it again below how he was not talking about receiving the bread of life like their fathers did with manna.

John 6:47 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life. 48 I am that bread of life. 49 Your fathers did eat manna in the wilderness, and are dead. 50 This is the bread which cometh down from heaven, that a man may eat thereof, and not die.

Jesus said again and again how to receive that bread of life by believing in Him to receive eternal life, but their mindset was on eating that bread of life, not by coming to and believing in Him.

If you read verse 35 above, if Jesus was talking about communion, then we would only eat it one to so that we do not make Him look like a liar in eating and drinking communion again for that would mean we are hungering and thirsting for it again when He said we would not be doing that.

So John 6th chapter cannot be about communion because His words would be denying His promise that we would never hunger nor thirst for that again. Jesus was talking about how to receive eternal life in reference to Him being that bread of life by coming to and believing in Him.

His promise is not matching how the CC is applying His words to communion or the Mass, but because the unbelieving Jews were having a hard time of it, is because their mindset was on eating that actual bread when Jesus was referring to Himself as being that bread of life, and His words to the unbelieving Jews whose mindset was eating that bread, could not get beyond that mindset as they were still rejecting coming to & believing in Jesus Christ for eternal life when they thought He meant eating His body and drinking His blood when He resorted to sarcasm because of their unbelief.

I see it as sarcasm when they kept failing or refusing to see how to receive that bread of life like He told them to... by coming to & believing in Him.
I see that you completely ignored everything I presented in post #59. I'm not going to post it again, but I suggest you RE-read it - and know that I, too understand the Bread of Life Discourse to be about Salvation.

There are MANY flaws in your response - but one of the biggest is that you completely gloss over the implications of John 6:67. In John 6:66, the people could not handle what Jesus was telling them about eating His flesh and drinking His blood - so they LEFT Him and returned to their former way of life.

In the very NEXT verse, Jesus turns to the Twelve and says:
John 6:67
"Do you ALSO want to leave?"


This is HIGHLY significant because we are told in Mark 4:33-34 that although Jesus spoke in parables and symbols to the crowds - He ALWAYS explained himself to the Apostles.

In John 6:67 - did He explain to the Apostles that He was only speaking "symbolically" or "metaphorically"?
NO
. He MEANT what He said - and at the Last Supper - He SHOWED them HOW to do it.

Peter puts the whole matter to rest when he responds:
John 6:6
“Master, to whom shall we go? You have the words of eternal life. We have come to believe and are convinced that you are the Holy One of God.”


YOU can believe whateve you want to believe about the Bread of Life discourse - but understand that YOUR views are fairly new. This has NEVER been a teaching of the 2000-year-old historic Christian faith - but an invention that arose some 1600 years later.
 

JesusIsFaithful

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I see that you completely ignored everything I presented in post #59. I'm not going to post it again, but I suggest you RE-read it - and know that I, too understand the Bread of Life Discourse to be about Salvation.

The problem is that you keep seeing it about communion as well as about salvation, and it can't be, because Jesus promised on receiving the bread of life, we would never hunger nor thirst any more in John 6:35.

The verses you see in error as referring to communion, cannot be about communion when He is speaking to unbelieving Jews that still refused to accept His words about how to receive the bread of life when they are in that mindset and cannot get out of that mindset when they had requested Him to give them that bread of life so as to literally eat that bread of life as their fathers did with manna... which Jesus said that was not how they were going to receive that bread of life.

I understand how and why you see both, but it doesn't align with His promise in John 6:35 at all nor how He was trying to tell them that they wee not going to receive it the same way by eating manna as their fathers did, but by believing in Him is how they will receive eternal life.

John 6:47 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life. 48 I am that bread of life. 49 Your fathers did eat manna in the wilderness, and are dead. 50 This is the bread which cometh down from heaven, that a man may eat thereof, and not die.

The unbelieving Jews said it first in questioning His words as if it was about eating His body; Jesus repeated what they had said to announce their unbelief in sarcasm on how to receive the bread of life for they were striving against His words on how to receive.

He spoke plainly to His disciples that it was His words.. what He was saying.. on how to receive the bread of life by believing in Him and again, Jesus pointed out why some among them do not believe and even one was a traitor. That was when some of His disciples walked away, but in referring to the 12 that had remained, again, Judas Iscariot was not a believer for why he would not receive the bread of life.
 
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Josiah

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As for Jesus and Paul using the words, "This IS my body" - that brings up an interesting point. Since Jesus was merely holding up a piece of bread - why did He lie and say that it was His BODY - and not simply a piece of bread that was a "symbol" of His Body??


No, he did not lie. He did not say, "This has CHANGED from one reality into a different one via a very specific physical mechanism of an alchemic transubstantiation leaving behind a mixture of reality and Aristotelian Accidents that only SEEM to be real or only have the appearance of some reality."

He said "IS.... BODY..... BLOOD...... BREAD.... WINE..... FORGIVENESS.' Not "changed...... alchemy.... transubstantiation..... is not..... only seems like..... Aristotle..... accidence..... appearance....." You keep pointing out how Scripture supports Real Presence and not the RC denomination's medieval invention of transubstantiation.

Real Presence holds that the meaning of "is" is "is." Real... existing.... present.... there. I'M the one holding to the real presence of His Body and Blood.... you are the one dogmatically insisting on alchemy and Aristotle and the 1551 new invented dogma of the singular RC denomination that replaced that with the dogma of transubstantiation, even though you keep pointing out how Scripture affirms Real Presence but NOTHING about this odd invention of western Catholic medieval "Scholasticism."



- Josiah




.
 

Josiah

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The first time we see this word in the written form is by Hildebert of Tours in about 1079. We also see it in the writings of such theologians as Stephen of Autun (d. 1139), Gaufred (d. 1188), and Peter of Blois (d. 1200). At Lateran IV in 1215 and at the Council of Lyons in 1274 we see the very SAME expression.


Correct. NOTHING about the new invented dogma of the RC denomination before the 11th Century (some say the 9th, but I'll agree with you and go with the 11th).


Bottom line: You can't have the Real Presence WITHOUT a change to the substance. . .


How heretical. So, we can't have the Trinity WITHOUT one person changing into another? We can't have Jesus as BOTH FULLY God and Man because one has to CHANGE INTO the other? We accept that Father, Son and Holy Spirit are (same critical verb - "IS") because they all are, not because the Father changed into the Son via a physical mechanism of an alchemic transubstantiation leaving behind only the Aristotelian ACCIDENT of the Father.... we accept that Jesus IS (same verb!) IS both fully God and man because the meaning of is is is - not because the Son CHANGED into Jesus via an alchemic transubstantiation leaving behind the Aristotelian ACCIDENT. You need to review your theology..... MANY things are accepted as "is" - being, present, existing - because Scripture says so (with that word "is") and never because one reality changed into the other - via alchemy or otherwise, leaving behind Aristotelian Accidents or not.



- Josiah



.
 

Philip James

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Again.. the eating of the flesh profit nothing;]

That is NOT what it says...

John 6:62 What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before? 63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life. 64 But there are some of you that believe not.

It is OUR flesh that profits nothing, so then forget what you see and what you taste with your flesh (bread and wine)

But rather trust in the words of our Saviour, for they are Spirit and Life:

'if you eat my flesh and drink my blood i will abide in you and you in me and you will have eternal life'

'this is my body, take and eat'

'this is my blood, take and drink'

Peace!
 

JesusIsFaithful

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That is NOT what it says...

It is OUR flesh that profits nothing, so then forget what you see and what you taste with your flesh (bread and wine)

But rather trust in the words of our Saviour, for they are Spirit and Life:

'if you eat my flesh and drink my blood i will abide in you and you in me and you will have eternal life'

'this is my body, take and eat'

'this is my blood, take and drink'

Peace!

Tell me how the verses below apply or how it does not reprove what you are saying.

Hebrews 9:24 For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us: 25 Nor yet that he should offer himself often, as the high priest entereth into the holy place every year with blood of others; 26 For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself. 27 And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment: 28 So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.

He is not offering Himself nor His one time sacrifice for sin to be received often or again in communion nor in the Mass and the reason why is so that you can look unto Him when He appears unto salvation rather than to your next communion or the Mass.

Since scripture cannot go against scripture, Catholics are reading and applying His words wrong at the expense of other scripture that plainly says otherwise. The CC said that it is anathema to just take communion in remembrance of Him and yet that is all Jesus said to take communion for.
 

JesusIsFaithful

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Because it is all that ONE sacrifice that Jesus offers ...

Peace!

You still having Him offering that one sacrifice for sin "OFTEN" to be received by the same believer again and again and again as if that one time sacrifice for sin is on par with the blood of goats and bulls that it bears repeating to be received.

Hebrews 9:24 For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us: 25 Nor yet that he should offer himself often, as the high priest entereth into the holy place every year with blood of others;

So you can't even offer that one time sacrifice for sin often to be received again and again and again as if the first time was not good enough as it was for the blood of goats and bulls. That would be treating the blood of the Covenant as an unholy thing.

Since He has entered into the holy places, then communion can only be done in remembrance of Him, otherwise that would be taking communion in an unworthy manner.
 

BreadOfLife

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The problem is that you keep seeing it about communion as well as about salvation, and it can't be, because Jesus promised on receiving the bread of life, we would never hunger nor thirst any more in John 6:35.

The verses you see in error as referring to communion, cannot be about communion when He is speaking to unbelieving Jews that still refused to accept His words about how to receive the bread of life when they are in that mindset and cannot get out of that mindset when they had requested Him to give them that bread of life so as to literally eat that bread of life as their fathers did with manna... which Jesus said that was not how they were going to receive that bread of life.

I understand how and why you see both, but it doesn't align with His promise in John 6:35 at all nor how He was trying to tell them that they wee not going to receive it the same way by eating manna as their fathers did, but by believing in Him is how they will receive eternal life.

John 6:47 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life. 48 I am that bread of life. 49 Your fathers did eat manna in the wilderness, and are dead. 50 This is the bread which cometh down from heaven, that a man may eat thereof, and not die.

The unbelieving Jews said it first in questioning His words as if it was about eating His body; Jesus repeated what they had said to announce their unbelief in sarcasm on how to receive the bread of life for they were striving against His words on how to receive.

He spoke plainly to His disciples that it was His words.. what He was saying.. on how to receive the bread of life by believing in Him and again, Jesus pointed out why some among them do not believe and even one was a traitor. That was when some of His disciples walked away, but in referring to the 12 that had remained, again, Judas Iscariot was not a believer for why he would not receive the bread of life.
Seriously??
Jesus was telling His followers that they would no longer hunger and thirst - SPIRITUALLY.

You are EXACTLY the type of person Jesus was talking about in verse 63 when He said:
"It is the spirit that gives life, while the flesh profits nothing. The words I have spoken to you are spirit and life."

They were thinking on a fleshly human level - as YOU are. He was challenging them to think on a HIGHER spiritual level - but they couldn't do it - and neither can YOU.

"The flesh profits nothing" is NOT speaking about HIS flesh.
HIS sacrifice in His flesh profits us EVERYTHING.
 

BreadOfLife

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No, he did not lie. He did not say, "This has CHANGED from one reality into a different one via a very specific physical mechanism of an alchemic transubstantiation leaving behind a mixture of reality and Aristotelian Accidents that only SEEM to be real or only have the appearance of some reality."

He said "IS.... BODY..... BLOOD...... BREAD.... WINE..... FORGIVENESS.' Not "changed...... alchemy.... transubstantiation..... is not..... only seems like..... Aristotle..... accidence..... appearance....." You keep pointing out how Scripture supports Real Presence and not the RC denomination's medieval invention of transubstantiation.

Real Presence holds that the meaning of "is" is "is." Real... existing.... present.... there. I'M the one holding to the real presence of His Body and Blood.... you are the one dogmatically insisting on alchemy and Aristotle and the 1551 new invented dogma of the singular RC denomination that replaced that with the dogma of transubstantiation, even though you keep pointing out how Scripture affirms Real Presence but NOTHING about this odd invention of western Catholic medieval "Scholasticism."
- Josiah.
Not to worry then because the Church doesn't use the terms "Alchemy", "Alchemic" or "Aristotle" in it's dogma.

And, as I have had to educate you several times now - this wasn't a "new invention" in 1551. The belief in Transubstantiation goes all the way back to the earliest writings of the Church. The actual WORD "Transubstantiation", as I schooled you in my last post was being used LONG before 1551 - all the way back to 1079.

That's almost 500 years before the date that YOU claim it was "invented" . . .
 

BreadOfLife

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Correct. NOTHING about the new invented dogma of the RC denomination before the 11th Century (some say the 9th, but I'll agree with you and go with the 11th).
That's funny because on SEVERAL posts now - YOU have been claiming that this was "invented" in 1551. NOW, you're "agreeing" that the actual word was first used in the 11th century.
Does that make you dishonest - or just REALLY dense?
How heretical. So, we can't have the Trinity WITHOUT one person changing into another? We can't have Jesus as BOTH FULLY God and Man because one has to CHANGE INTO the other? We accept that Father, Son and Holy Spirit are (same critical verb - "IS") because they all are, not because the Father changed into the Son via a physical mechanism of an alchemic transubstantiation leaving behind only the Aristotelian ACCIDENT of the Father.... we accept that Jesus IS (same verb!) IS both fully God and man because the meaning of is is is - not because the Son CHANGED into Jesus via an alchemic transubstantiation leaving behind the Aristotelian ACCIDENT. You need to review your theology..... MANY things are accepted as "is" - being, present, existing - because Scripture says so (with that word "is") and never because one reality changed into the other - via alchemy or otherwise, leaving behind Aristotelian Accidents or not.
- Josiah.
WHO said that Transubstantiation forces one Person of the Trinity to become "another" Person of the Trinity?
Sounds like YOU are very confused . . .
 

Josiah

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WHO said that Transubstantiation forces one Person of the Trinity to become "another" Person of the Trinity?Sounds like YOU are very confused . . .


You said that Jesus saying "This IS...." requires, mandates, necessitates that one thing CHANGED INTO something else. It's YOUR mandate. Thus, according to your mandate, when Peter says, "You are (same verb as "IS") the Christ, the Son of the Living God" ergo you insist this MANDATES a change happened to Jesus at the utterance of these words, specificially and alchemic transubstantiation changing Jesus from one reality TO a different reality, leaving behind a mixture of reality and Aristotelian Accidents. You stressed, the verb "is/are" mandates just such a change. I think that's silly. There is NOTHING in that verb that so necessitates (and if it did, you MUST deny the two natures of Christ and the Trinity, among many other things). I hold that that the meaning of "is" is "is" - you hold that it MUST mean "CHANGED from one reality to a completely different foreign reality via the very specific, technical, physical mechanism of an alchemic "transubstantiation" leaving a mixture or reality and Aristotelian Accidents." I simply pointed out that requires you be a heretic.



the Church doesn't use the terms "Alchemy", "Alchemic" or "Aristotle" in it's dogma.


True, but then the church doesn't teach the unique, new Euchartist dogma - only your singular denomination does, and that only since 1551 as dogma.

Friend, your denomination uses the very rare, very technical word for a certain kind/type of "change" - a word that comes lock, stock and barrel from alchemy. It could have uses several different (more generic) words for change, but it uses a very rare, very specific Latin word for this change - a word taken from alchemy. The Latin word itself includes alchemy.

Friend, your denomination uses the word "accidents" (although, yes, in embarrassment, since Vatican II, it is apt to use a very generic word of 'appearance'). The word "accident" comes lock, stock and barrel from Aristotle (whose philosophies were popular in western Europe during the middle ages), it is the specific title of one of his weirdest theories known as "Aristotelian Accidents." Again, the exclusive rare word the RCC used for over 400 years is the title of this (wrong, absurd) theory of Aristotle.




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