You’re the first Amill I’ve met that doesn’t have an issue with placing time gaps in the Bible.
Right, I don’t know of any Amill that would do that either. But that’s not really the issue, the issue is if there were no gaps then the rest of the dead would live again after the millennium and prior to Satan’s little season. That would require the rest of the dead to be spiritually dead, as in Luke 9:60 where the dead bury their dead. The spiritually dead bury the physical dead.
Of course no Amill I know wants to allow an interpretation like that because it goes against their narrative, but then again I don’t know of any Amill except you that agrees with placing time gaps in the Bible.
Revelation 20:5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.
7 And when the thousand years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison,
8 And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog and Magog, to gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea.
9 And they went up on the breadth of the earth, and compassed the camp of the saints about, and the beloved city: and fire came down from God out of heaven, and devoured them.
After the thousand years expire would be the beginning of satan's little season. If we assume the dead meant are meaning those in verse 8, in what way were they dead during the millennium then alive after the millennium? If we say they were spiritually dead during the millennium, and that they are spiritually alive after the millennium, that makes sense of the following exactly how?---And they went up on the breadth of the earth, and compassed the camp of the saints about, and the beloved city. Only someone spiritually alive can do that? No one spiritually dead can do that?
Therefore, the only logical place I see the rest of the dead fitting is Rev 20:11-15. What about verse 8 and 9 then? They are not even dead during the millennium. How can the millennium or even satan's little season be including them? Yet they become dead at the end of satan's little season. Except verse 5 is meaning at the beginning of the millennium, thus Daniel 7:22/Revelation 20:4---and I saw thrones, and judgment was given to the saints of the Most high--the saints then live and reign with Christ a thousand years. But the rest of the dead do not live again until after the thousand years expire(this is parenthetical in this context). This is the first resurrection. And the time came that the saints possess the kingdom.
How can saints possess the kingdom 2k years ago when Daniel 7:27 indicates they don't do that until verse 26 is fulfilled first? How could verse 26 which involves verses 9-11 possibly have been before the millennium allegedly began 2K years ago(according to Amil), when verses 9-11 fit the end of this age and the 2nd coming? No standard Amil, not to be confused with a hybrid Amil, is arguing that verse 9-11 fit before the beginning of their proposed beginning of the millennium 2k years ago. But that is beside the point. The timeline in Daniel 7 demands that verses 9-11. 26 fit when the millennium begins, not after it had already finished earlier in time, as some Amils would have us believe
It is a contradiction in Daniel 7 to place verses 9-11, 26 after the millennium rather than in the beginning of it. After all, verse 22 is the interpretation of verses 9-11.