Dispensational Law

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Netchaplain

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Much confusion has come about by a failure to distinguish the principle of law and the dispensation of the law. Paul makes a number of statements about the passing away of the law, such as, “For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone that believeth” (Rom 10:4).

And in 2 Corinthians 3:7, 11, 13 he speaks of the law which was written and engraved in stones as having been done away and abolished. What does Paul mean by these statements? In what sense has the law been done away? The law forbade murder, theft and adultery. Does Paul mean that under grace the law against such behavior has been rescinded?

Assuredly not, since Paul speaks out very strongly against such practices. Neither is he saying that the elemental law of human nature has come to an end, for Christians above all others have become sensitized to sin. He must, then, be speaking about the dispensation or administration of law, which was introduced by Moses, as having come to an end.

Earlier it was pointed out that Paul always associates the law with the flesh and that he contends that the law is not of faith (Gal 3:12). When the law was dispensed at Mt. Sinai it was given to a people who, while under the promise of God and in that sense the people of God, were as yet in actual experience in the flesh. The dispensation of the Spirit had not yet come. They were not indwelt by the Holy Spirit. They had not experienced personal regeneration. The writer to the Hebrews describes these per-Christian saints: “These all died in faith, not having received the promises, but having seen them afar off, and were persuaded of them, and confessed that they were strangers and pilgrims on the earth” (11:13).

Before fulfilling these promises to His people, God purposed to place them under the dispensation of law in order to manifest fully and completely the true character of sin, and the total inability of the fleshly nature of man to please God. Paul states very clearly God’s purpose in giving the law: “Now we know that what things so ever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified: for by the law is the knowledge of sin” (Rom 3:19, 20).

Paul likewise shows the inability of the law to produce that which it demanded from Adamic man. It could produce neither righteousness nor life. “For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh” … (Rom 8:3). “For if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law” (Gal 3:21).

Now the principle upon which the law operates is not one of faith, as Paul plainly declares in Galatians 3:12, but “the man that doeth then shall live by them.” Law demands doing, or works. This is why Paul constantly speaks of the works or deeds of the law. God as a righteous Judge must justify any person who perfectly fulfills His holy law (Rom 2:13).

The law was placed over sinful flesh, and no flesh was ever able to fulfill the demands of the law. Therefore God has proven through the dispensation of law the exceeding sinfulness of sin and the absolute inability of the natural man to please God (Rom 8:7, 8). “But sin, that it might appear sin, working death in me by that which is good—that sin by the commandment might become exceedingly sinful” (Rom 7:13).

-Unknown

http://www.abideabove.com/hungry-heart/
 

Poppin

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Greetings NetChaplain :)

I agree that:

Galatians 3
The Purpose of the Law
18For if the inheritance is based on law, it is no longer based on a promise; but God has granted it to Abraham by means of a promise. 19Why the Law then? It was added because of transgressions, having been ordained through angels by the agency of a mediator, until the seed would come to whom the promise had been made.

But disagree that there was a "dispensation of Law" that replaced or interrupted in any way the promise made to Abraham (received by faith). What the Patriarchs had not received (the promise) was full and final atonement (eternal) for their sins - their sins had been passed over (covered; unpunished) until Jesus came.

You might be saying the same thing...just not clear to me - sorry :huh:
The "dispensation of Law" if we can all it that was indeed a period which had a beginning (It was added because of transgressions), and an end (until John, until the seed [Christ] would come to whom the promise had been made, and Who would fulfill the Law's righteous requirements). But it was added and carried out alongside the Promise, not in place of it for a period of time.

Sorry if this doesn't make sense, if it does, could you comment?
grace mercy and peace to you,
Poppin.
 

Tropical Islander

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Since this article appears in the Bible Study section, I had a look in my Bible to find all the scriptures where Paul uses that word 'dispensation'

Result: there is no "Dispensational Law" in the Bible.

"Dispensational Law" only appears inside the concept of Dispensationalism, not in the Scriptures. It was invented by 2 Jesuits by the way, and the goal of these has always been to bring everyone 'back home to mother Rome'.

The relationship between law & grace is not as imagined by Dispensationalists, because Jesus contradicts them here: Matthew 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

Did heaven and earth pass away already?

No, and Jesus can not lie, he always means exactly what he says.

So when will heaven and earth pass away according the scriptures?

Revelation 21:1 And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea.

I was at the beach yesterday and can confirm that there STILL is a sea right now. So we're not there yet.
 

Rocky Wiley

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Tropical Islander said:
Did heaven and earth pass away already?

No, and Jesus can not lie, he always means exactly what he says.

So when will heaven and earth pass away according the scriptures?

Revelation 21:1 And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea.

I was at the beach yesterday and can confirm that there STILL is a sea right now. So we're not there yet.
Hello Tropical Islander,

I only respond to you because you ask the question “Has heavens and earth passed away? Like you, it was hard for me to read that and answer yes to it. But by study of the words ‘heaven and earth’ in the old testament it became clear that it was speaking of the covenant between God and the Jews. It was symbolized by the place where God and man would meet, Mount Moria. This mountain was where Abraham took Isaac to sacrifice, where Jacob had his vision of the ladder into heaven, and it is where Solomon built the temple in Jerusalem.

In Matthew 24 the disciples pointed out the beautiful temple and Jesus responded that there would not be one stone left upon another. The disciples then asked “when shall these things be, the sign of thy coming and the end of the age?” They would have only asked this question if they understood Jesus to say the end of the covenant God had with the Jews was coming to an end.

They knew, and we should as well, that when the temple was destroyed Jesus had returned in judgment against the wicked who had broken the covenant and did not accept him as their Messiah. It happened in 70 AD.

So when we read the words “heaven and earth” replace them with the word covenant.

Mat 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
When the covenant passes away, symbolized by the temple, all of the law would be fulfilled.

Mat 24:35 Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.

Rev 21:1 And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea.
Saw a new heaven and earth, covenant, for the first heaven and earth, covenant, were passed away and there was no more sea, separation of the Jews and Gentiles.
 

Poppin

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Jan 16, 2014
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Rocky Wiley said:
Hello Tropical Islander,

I only respond to you because you ask the question “Has heavens and earth passed away? Like you, it was hard for me to read that and answer yes to it. But by study of the words ‘heaven and earth’ in the old testament it became clear that it was speaking of the covenant between God and the Jews. It was symbolized by the place where God and man would meet, Mount Moria. This mountain was where Abraham took Isaac to sacrifice, where Jacob had his vision of the ladder into heaven, and it is where Solomon built the temple in Jerusalem.

In Matthew 24 the disciples pointed out the beautiful temple and Jesus responded that there would not be one stone left upon another. The disciples then asked “when shall these things be, the sign of thy coming and the end of the age?” They would have only asked this question if they understood Jesus to say the end of the covenant God had with the Jews was coming to an end.

They knew, and we should as well, that when the temple was destroyed Jesus had returned in judgment against the wicked who had broken the covenant and did not accept him as their Messiah. It happened in 70 AD.

So when we read the words “heaven and earth” replace them with the word covenant.

Mat 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
When the covenant passes away, symbolized by the temple, all of the law would be fulfilled.

Mat 24:35 Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.

Rev 21:1 And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea.
Saw a new heaven and earth, covenant, for the first heaven and earth, covenant, were passed away and there was no more sea, separation of the Jews and Gentiles.
Greetings Rocky Wiley :)
I found this very interesting, and have just spent a little time considering it.
Being unfamiliar with it, yet having already encountered issues with the ramifications, I wondered if you have resources I might look at more closely - if so, could you link to them here or send me a message?
Poppin
 

Netchaplain

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"For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled."

This does not mean the Law will not be fulfilled until heaven and earth pass away, but that it would be more likely that the heaven and earth would pass away before any detraction from the Law could occur. It's instruction is that the passing of the Law will occur upon its fulfilling, which it has--in Christ's earthly life, death and resurrection (Mat 3:15; 5:17). "He taketh away the first, to establish the second" (Heb 10:9).
 

Poppin

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NetChaplain said:
"For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled."

This does not mean the Law will not be fulfilled until heaven and earth pass away, but that it would be more likely that the heaven and earth would pass away before any detraction from the Law could occur. It's instruction is that the passing of the Law will occur upon its fulfilling, which it has--in Christ's earthly life, death and resurrection (Mat 3:15; 5:17). "He taketh away the first, to establish the second" (Heb 10:9).
Hello NetCaplain...
Which is very similar to what Rocky Wiley posited in post 4:

So when we read the words “heaven and earth” replace them with the word covenant.

Mat 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
When the covenant passes away, symbolized by the temple, all of the law would be fulfilled.


And I am intrigued ;) . Currently examining this interpretation.
Poppin
 

Tropical Islander

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Rocky,

I don't think we have to change anything, or replace the meaning of words. Just because you feel it makes sense to you. Here's an idea: Read Revelation 21:1 first. Take note of the word "sea".

All three words there are literal. Heaven, Earth and Sea.

Then read Matt 5:18 again, same here. Scripture validates scripture. And of course your theory then goes out the window, it's based on conjecture and pre-text. It has a ring of truth to it, however the literal meaning is slighty different, and that difference counts. Because it defeats antinomianism and also dispensationalism in one go. It's very straight forward, no conjecture or symbolism needed.
 

Netchaplain

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Poppin said:
Hello NetCaplain...
Which is very similar to what Rocky Wiley posited in post 4:

So when we read the words “heaven and earth” replace them with the word covenant.

Mat 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
When the covenant passes away, symbolized by the temple, all of the law would be fulfilled.


And I am intrigued ;) . Currently examining this interpretation.
Poppin
Hi Poppin - I believe the Law was fulfilled by the Lord Jesus because He's the only one who could, as the Scriptures indicate in post # 6.
 
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Poppin

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NetChaplain said:
Hi Poppin - I believe the Law was fulfilled by the Lord Jesus because He's the only one who could, as the Scriptures indicate in post # 6.
Agree.
The other idea is interesting (heaven and earth being the witnesses), but I can't make it work.
 

Rocky Wiley

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Poppin said:
Greetings Rocky Wiley :)
I found this very interesting, and have just spent a little time considering it.
Being unfamiliar with it, yet having already encountered issues with the ramifications, I wondered if you have resources I might look at more closely - if so, could you link to them here or send me a message?
Poppin
Hi Poppin,

Here is a pdf file that I feel will give one a good overview.

Thanks for your interest.

http://www.newlifetabernacleofchattanooga.org/attachments/File/Bible_Studies/Thesis_on_Heaven_and_Earth.pdf