Hi Rocky,
Thanks for your reply.
If the destruction of the Temple was the end of the age, then the age of which Jesus was speaking was the age in which death reigned. That ties in with the verse in John 5:28, about the dead hearing. But He does say 'all' that are in the graves. Wouldn't that include non-Jews?
In John 5:25, He says 'the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God'. I think 'hear' means a little more than 'hear the sound of', because He states that they who 'hear' shall live. So, is this about resurrection day? John 5:29
The other aspect of the passage in John 5 - or anything which one attempts to limit to 'the Jews', is that the disciples were all Jews of one sort or another, and they were both hearing and believing Him, although with limited understanding, until (as Steve referred to) 'the road'. Even before His ascension, they still had not grasped that the 'Israel' which was going to be 'restored', was not the old Israel of the flesh, but the new Israel of the Spirit.
As Jesus said to Thomas, 'Blessed are those who have not seen, yet believe'. He had also told them one of the reasons they needed the Holy Spirit was because they could not yet 'bear' all that He had to reveal to them.
What is the point in trying to put their subsequent revelation and exposition (through the epistles) back in the box?
Is it just an exercise in trying to grasp how dense not only the disciples, but all the Jews were, at that time? (Before Pentecost.)
Thanks for your reply.
If the destruction of the Temple was the end of the age, then the age of which Jesus was speaking was the age in which death reigned. That ties in with the verse in John 5:28, about the dead hearing. But He does say 'all' that are in the graves. Wouldn't that include non-Jews?
In John 5:25, He says 'the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God'. I think 'hear' means a little more than 'hear the sound of', because He states that they who 'hear' shall live. So, is this about resurrection day? John 5:29
You might like to compare the beginning of Genesis 5 with the beginning of Matthew 1, where generation is singular.Jesus spoke of this in Matthew 24, when he told his disciples that the temple would be destroyed. They, being Jews, knew that would mean the end of the age for they asked "When shall these things be, the sign of thy coming and the end of the age?" Mat 24:3
The other aspect of the passage in John 5 - or anything which one attempts to limit to 'the Jews', is that the disciples were all Jews of one sort or another, and they were both hearing and believing Him, although with limited understanding, until (as Steve referred to) 'the road'. Even before His ascension, they still had not grasped that the 'Israel' which was going to be 'restored', was not the old Israel of the flesh, but the new Israel of the Spirit.
As Jesus said to Thomas, 'Blessed are those who have not seen, yet believe'. He had also told them one of the reasons they needed the Holy Spirit was because they could not yet 'bear' all that He had to reveal to them.
What is the point in trying to put their subsequent revelation and exposition (through the epistles) back in the box?
Is it just an exercise in trying to grasp how dense not only the disciples, but all the Jews were, at that time? (Before Pentecost.)