How Many Dispensations are Found in Scripture?

[Arthur81]

There are only two dispensations found in the words of scripture:

"Now if the dispensation of death, carved in letters on stone, came with such splendor that the Israelites could not look at Moses’ face because of its brightness, fading as this was, will not the dispensation of the Spirit be attended with greater splendor? For if there was splendor in the dispensation of condemnation, the dispensation of righteousness must far exceed it in splendor. "(2Cor 3:7-9 RSV)

"The law, then, engraved letter by letter upon stone, dispensed death, and yet it was inaugurated with divine splendour. That splendour, though it was soon to fade, made the face of Moses so bright that the Israelites could not gaze steadily at him. But if so, must not even greater splendour rest upon the divine dispensation of the Spirit? If splendour accompanied the dispensation under which we are condemned, how much richer in splendour must that one be under which we are acquitted!" (2 Cor 3:7-9 New English Bible)

"For, 1. The Old-Testament dispensation was the ministration of death (v. 7), whereas that of the New Testament is the ministration of life...Not only did the glory of Moses's face go away, but the glory of Moses's law is done away also; yea, the law of Moses itself is now abolished. That dispensation was only to continue for a time, and then to vanish away; whereas the gospel shall remain to the end of the world, and is always fresh and flourishing and remains glorious." Matthew Henry on 2 Cor. 3:6-11.

"The ministration of the Spirit - That is, the Christian dispensation...The ministration of condemnation - Such the Mosaic dispensation proved to all the Jews who rejected the gospel whereas through the gospel (hence called the ministration of righteousness) God both imputed and imparted righteousness to all believers." John Wesley on 2 Cor. 3:8-9

"...that great word of Jesus, 'I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill.' Had be lived to a time like ours, when the Gospel also has been embodied in a book, instead of using 'letter' and 'spirit' as mutually exclusive, he would have admitted, as we do, that both ideas apply, in some sense, to both dispensations, and that it is possible to take the old and the new alike either in the letter or in the spirit. Nevertheless, he would have been entitled to say that, if they were to be characterized in their differences, they must be characterized as he has done it: the mark of the old, as opposed to the new, is literalism, or legalism; the mark of the new, as opposed to the old, is spirituality, or freedom. They differ as law differs from life, as compulsion from inspiration. Taken thus, no one can have any difficulty in agreeing with him." The Expositor's Bible (1905) on 2 Cor. 3:4-11

"We conceive the familiar and established division to be correct, which makes two dispensations only, the Old Testament and the New. There seems no adequate reason for regarding the patriarchal age, from Adam to Moses, as essentially a different dispensation from that of Moses. Certainly that representation is incorrect which makes the former a free and gracious dispensation, while the latter only was burdened with the condemning weight of the moral and ritual law. For the moral law as to its substance, was already in force from Adam to Moses."
and again
"And first, we urge the general consideration that the Bible never speaks of more than two Covenants: that of the Law, or Works and that of Grace. The dispensations also are but two, 'the first and the second,' the 'new and the old.' But if Moses’ dispensation was a legal one in essence, then we must have three, for Abraham’s was doubtless a gracious one. We add, that there are but two imaginable ways and but two known to Scripture; 'grace' and 'works,' by which a soul can win adoption of life." Robert L Dabney, Systematic Theology

More than two dispensations can be found in man's notes, not in the Bible!

 

[Randy Kluth]

As a matter of legal issues, the 2 ways to approach God, before and after the Cross, are only 2. The word "dispensation" is another matter, and can be taken in more than 1 way. "Dispensation" can be taken as an "era," or it can be taken as a given "legal proposal."

In the case of the OT, a path to God is offered that is real and effective, but which cannot undo the curse given in the garden of Eden. No matter how in favor with God Man is, he must die--he cannot be redeemed by all of the authentic good works that he does.

On the other hand, after the Cross Man may approach God for eternity through abiding in Christ and receiving from him both his righteousness and mercy, obtaining forgiveness and eternal redemption. Only these 2 ways of approaching God exist, and we refer to this particular kind of "dispensation."

 

[Tommy Cool]

Different people have come up with a range of dispensations …generally between 5 and 8….. Jesus had three The Law, the Prophets, and the Psalms (Luk 24:44)

Many people get bent outta shape when you discuss dispensations … So I just give reference to three. God clearly states that we are in the dispensation (better translated administration) of grace which encapsulates the one body of Christ, the one new man.

If you have one administration (i.e. grace) declared by God…. by shear logic you have to have one before it and one after it …otherwise you would not have to delineate the administration of grace. ….and for me I only need this current administration of grace…. and for purposes of discussion the one that comes after this …which would be the Appearing (gathering together)

 

[Randy Kluth]

Different people have come up with a range of dispensations …generally between 5 and 8….. Jesus had three The Law, the Prophets, and the Psalms (Luk 24:44)

Many people get bent outta shape when you discuss dispensations … So I just give reference to three. God clearly states that we are in the dispensation (better translated administration) of grace which encapsulates the one body of Christ, the one new man.

If you have one administration (i.e. grace) declared by God…. by shear logic you have to have one before it and one after it …otherwise you would not have to delineate the administration of grace. ….and for me I only need this current administration of grace…. and for purposes of discussion the one that comes after this …which would be the Appearing (gathering together)

Yes, the Millennium, if you believe in that, must be a "Dispensation" too, along with the Eternal Age of the New Jerusalem/New Earth/New Heavens. But again, those are *eras*--not covenant dispensations.

 

[Arthur81]

The Geneva translation uses "dispensation" and followed by KJV using "dispensation" in 1 Cor. 9:17; Eph. 1:10; 3:2 and Col. 1:25. It translates the Greek "G3622 οἰκονομία oikonomia" and that is found in three additional verses Luke 16:2-4 where it is translated "stewardship" in the KJV. So, the Geneva and KJV apply the word "dispensation" to the New Covenant, the age of grace and gospel. The New Covenant of gospel is in contrast to "law" -

"For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ." (John 1:17 KJV)

Grace and truth are contrasted with law given by Moses, so Mosaic Law logically was the first dispensation. The Greek "G3622 οἰκονομία oikonomia" is used twice in the Greek OT, both times translated as "stewardship", Isa 22:19, 21.

If we follow the traditional translation of "dispensation" as a proper rendering of the Greek, we can't have more than two dispensations, the Old and the New Covenants. If we depart from the traditional use of the term dispensation, we should go with the modern versions such as the NRSV, REB and NET Bible where the word "dispensation" is not used anywhere in the Bible. The RSV uses the word dispensation in 2 Cor.3:7-9 to distinguish the Old from the New Covenant as shown in the OP. The Douay, Wycliffe, RV and ASV translations add one verse using "dispensation", Eph 3:9, but the Greek there is "G2842 κοινωνία koinonia" but it is still applied to the New Covenant in contrast to the Old Covenant. In Eph. 3:9 the KJV uses "fellowship" rather than "dispensation".

To add more dispensations than the two used biblically, is to depart from the traditional and standard use of the word, which is very misleading. Here are two versions of the verse often misused:

"Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth." (2Tim 2:15 KJV)
"Try hard to show yourself worthy of God’s approval, as a worker with no cause for shame; keep strictly to the true gospel," (2Tim 2:15 REB)

"rightly dividing" does NOT mean cutting the Bible up into 7 sections and calling them dispensations. A most important divide is keeping "law" and "gospel" separate, two dispensations; as the REB renders it "keep strictly to the true gospel".

“The law and the prophets were until John; since then the good news of the kingdom of God is preached, and every one enters it violently." (Luke 16:16 RSV)

If the idea of "dividing" is kept, separating law from gospel is the key divide. Yet the word does not mean divide as other translations show -

"Do your best to present yourself to God as one approved, a workman who has no need to be ashamed, rightly handling the word of truth." (2Tim 2:15 RSV)

"Do your best to present yourself to God as one approved by him, a worker who has no need to be ashamed, rightly explaining the word of truth." (2Tim 2:15 NRSV)

 

[Randy Kluth]

If we follow the traditional translation of "dispensation" as a proper rendering of the Greek, we can't have more than two dispensations, the Old and the New Covenants. If we depart from the traditional use of the term dispensation, we should go with the modern versions such as the NRSV, REB and NET Bible where the word "dispensation" is not used anywhere in the Bible. The RSV uses the word dispensation in 2 Cor.3:7-9 to distinguish the Old from the New Covenant as shown in the OP. The Douay, Wycliffe, RV and ASV translations add one verse using "dispensation", Eph 3:9, but the Greek there is "G2842 κοινωνία koinonia" but it is still applied to the New Covenant in contrast to the Old Covenant. In Eph. 3:9 the KJV uses "fellowship" rather than "dispensation".

"Dispensation" can be used as a substitute for "Covenant" or for "Era" in common parlance. Scripturally, we only have 2 major covenants, although there are lesser covenants mentioned in the Bible. We have Law and Grace, as you mentioned.

So these 2 "Dispensations" are really representative of 2 major Covenants that apply to God's People. The Law is outmoded and non-applicable, but Grace is in full force.

But if we apply "Dispensation" to Eras, we get a different look at it in common parlance. We have the Era before the Law, some call the Era of Conscience. Then we have the Era of the Law. There may even be Eras in which Israel is without the temple, in Captivity. There is the Era of the Temple Restoration. There is the NT age before the Millennium, the Millennium itself, and the Eternal Age.

All of these Eras are sometimes called "Dispensations." So it just depends on how the Greek and Hebrew words are translated, on whether we use our own personal synonyms for them, and on whether we're speaking of Covenants or Eras.

Biblically, it depends on what the Bible views as "Dispensations," as we define them. And I would say that your sense of them being "Major Covenants" is probably accurate--just two.

 

[RR144]

3 ... The World that was, (Pre-Flood) the world that is (Present evil world) and the world that is to come, (the Kingdom age)

 

[Arthur81]

"Dispensation" can be used as a substitute for "Covenant" or for "Era" in common parlance. Scripturally, we only have 2 major covenants, although there are lesser covenants mentioned in the Bible. We have Law and Grace, as you mentioned.

So these 2 "Dispensations" are really representative of 2 major Covenants that apply to God's People. The Law is outmoded and non-applicable, but Grace is in full force.

But if we apply "Dispensation" to Eras, we get a different look at it in common parlance. We have the Era before the Law, some call the Era of Conscience. Then we have the Era of the Law. There may even be Eras in which Israel is without the temple, in Captivity. There is the Era of the Temple Restoration. There is the NT age before the Millennium, the Millennium itself, and the Eternal Age.

All of these Eras are sometimes called "Dispensations." So it just depends on how the Greek and Hebrew words are translated, on whether we use our own personal synonyms for them, and on whether we're speaking of Covenants or Eras.

Biblically, it depends on what the Bible views as "Dispensations," as we define them. And I would say that your sense of them being "Major Covenants" is probably accurate--just two.

Randy, I don't know how you used "common parlance", but I try to stay with standard English to avoid confusion. In checking Thesaurus.com - The world's favorite online thesaurus! I do not find dispensation, covenant or era to be synonyms. It can be confusing if we get into different theological nomenclature used by various Christian groups, while trying to discuss a topic read by people of varied backgrounds. Trying to choose the most accurate rendering of a verse from the various translations can in itself be a challenge for each of us, unless we are KJV only.

 

[Randy Kluth]

Randy, I don't know how you used "common parlance", but I try to stay with standard English to avoid confusion.

lol "Common parlance" is, in fact, "Standard English!"
But I think I understand the problem here. Many years ago, when I first heard the word "dispensation" with respect to biblical theology, I didn't have a clue how that fit into the way it was being used. It seemed to be applied to various *eras,* instead of to "covenants." In reality, it seemed to be trying to bridge both "covenants" and "eras!"

And that's why it's a bit confusing--at least it was for me, initially. Maybe it still is, a little bit?

In checking Thesaurus.com - The world's favorite online thesaurus! I do not find dispensation, covenant or era to be synonyms. It can be confusing if we get into different theological nomenclature used by various Christian groups, while trying to discuss a topic read by people of varied backgrounds. Trying to choose the most accurate rendering of a verse from the various translations can in itself be a challenge for each of us, unless we are KJV only.

So I wouldn't have personally chosen the word "dispensation" for this kind of thing. But it is obviously thought that God is "giving" out covenants of 2 sorts, one by Law and the other by Grace. And so, they are called "dispensations."

At the same time, they are, by the same people, used to diagram a progression from the Age of Conscience to the Age of the Millennium and beyond. And so, "dispensation" is used, simultaneously, to apply to "eras."

I agree--it was not a good idea to conflate all of this together. They are synonyms in light of its theological use, but not in definitions #2 or 3 of this word! "Dispensation" just means to "give out." Theologically, it can mean a "dispensation of covenant" or a "dispensation of covenant era."