Jesus Was the Son (As Properly Reckoned) of Joseph...of David...of Adam...of God

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belantos

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Nov 12, 2010
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Yeshua Was the Son (As Properly Reckoned) of Joseph...of David...of Adam...of God
by Shmuel Playfair
[edited for easier reading]

In Luke 3:23 we read that *Joseph* [not Mary] was [the son] of Heli [Elee]. All of the genealogies found in the Jewish scriptures were exclusively patrilineal (never matrilineal). When Luke writes, "Yeshua (Jesus) was the son AS WAS SUPPOSED of Joseph..." many falsely conclude that this means that Yeshua was *not* really the biological descendant (i.e. son) of Joseph. This weak English translation of the Greek here is thought to imply that Yeshua was only supposedly (but not really) the son of Joseph. But this interpretation makes the whole rest of the genealogy a waste of ink, because it was only "supposed" that he was Joseph's son when actually he was not really his son.

The false claim that the genealogy here is for Mary has no textual support. Also, this contrived notion has no basis in the cultural context of Jewish genealogies. Giving the patrilineal genealogy of someone's mother is completely without precedence in the context of Jewish scriptures and tradition. The principle is stated in the Talmud Bavelee where we read, "The family of the [biological] FATHER is regarded as the proper family, but the family of the [biological] MOTHER IS NOT regarded as proper family". [Baba Bathra, 109b] In Israelite and Jewish tradition the lineage of the *biological* father [never the mother] determines the children's tribal affiliation and genealogical line even for one who is adopted.

In the Greek text we read, "....being son 'hos enomizeto' (ὡς ἐνομίζετο) of Joseph...of David....of Adam...of God". The Greek word used here, "enomizeto", is closely related to "nomos" (law; rule; principle; or *norm*). This could very well be translated, "...he was the son of Joseph 'according to accepted [Jewish] tradition, custom or norm' ", or "...he was the male descendant of Joseph...of David...'as was generally thought' or 'as was legally considered' or 'as was normally reckoned' by all". The popular translation "...being the son as was supposed of Joseph" works only in the sense that this generally accepted supposition proves to be the case as we find in the book of Acts. Here we read, "And on the day of the Sabbath we went forth outside the gate by a river where we supposed (enomizomen / ἐνομίζομεν) [i.e. as we expected to find and did in fact find] a place of prayer to be, and sitting down there we spoke...". [16:13] IOW, what is "supposed" by everyone to be true is in fact actually the case.

The Greek language has words to express *not* really the son of Joseph as was thought, if that was what the author intended say in opposition to what he actually wrote, "being son (as properly reckoned = as legally thought = as is actually the case) of Joseph...of David..." The words "ὡς ἐνομίζετο" (i.e. "according to normative custom and natural reckoning") indicated that this natural patrilineal genetic line was rightly assumed to be the case. There is no hint given by this genealogical record that this son of Adam was "adopted" by Joseph. If the Greek author had wanted to say that Yeshua was "adopted", he would have been able to say that in Greek. But, Luke's genealogy claims that Yeshua is Yoseph's natural heir and not simply his adopted heir. There is nothing in the "Greek grammar" that indicates that Joseph was declared to be either the falsely assumed father or the adoptive father of Yeshua. On the contrary, Yeshua was plainly declared to be the natural biological descendant (according to the patrilineal norm) of Joseph who was the patrilineal son of David. IOW, what was "supposed" by all to be was in fact the case. Both Yeshua and Yoseph were naturally and rightly [not wrongly] considered to be the biological descendants (i.e. sons) of David and of Abraham and of Adam.

Luke's declaration that this Joshua was "the son of God" (through Joseph, Elee....and Adam) is the climax of the whole genealogical chain. This chain begins with Yeshua, the first-born son of Joseph, his natural human father. It moves on to his second human "father" (or more precisely in English to his "grandfather"), Elee. And finally, the chain ends with "(the son) of Adam, (the son) of God", Who is the ultimate father or creator. So Adam was naturally considered to be the first human father (ancestor) of Yeshua the son of Joseph.
 
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veteran

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Jesus Christ of Nazareth was NOT the bloodline offspring of Joseph (husband of Mary)!

Luke 3:23
23 And Jesus Himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli,
(KJV)


Joseph's father was NOT Heli. It's easy to know that because Joseph's father (and lineage) is given in Matthew 1, NOT Luke 3. The Luke 3 lineage is MARY'S LINEAGE. Heli was Mary's father!


Here's Joseph's bloodline father per Matthew 1...

Matt 1:16
16 And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.
(KJV)


Jesus was only 'RECKONED' as Joseph's son BECAUSE of the requirement that lineage be shown from the male's side.


YOU are testifying FALSELY by pushing that false article here. That article is not in support of Christianity, nor The New Testament witness.


 

belantos

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Nov 12, 2010
184
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Jesus Christ of Nazareth was NOT the bloodline offspring of Joseph (husband of Mary)!

Luke 3:23
23 And Jesus Himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli,
(KJV)


Joseph's father was NOT Heli. It's easy to know that because Joseph's father (and lineage) is given in Matthew 1, NOT Luke 3. The Luke 3 lineage is MARY'S LINEAGE. Heli was Mary's father!


The author simply showed that both the author of Matthew AND the author Luke considered Jesus to be the son of David through his biological father, Joseph.
What proof do we have that Luke gives Mary's genealogy?


Here's Joseph's bloodline father per Matthew 1...

Matt 1:16
16 And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.


A number of variant reading of Matthew 1:16 are known to textual scholars. While the above reading is present in the Greek manuscripts, the Old Syriac (Sinaitic Syriac) translation of Matthew dated by many to the second century has the following reading:
"Jacob begot Joseph; Joseph, to whom was betrothed Mary the virgin, begot Jesus who is called the Christ"

This translation also ends Matthew 1 with the following reading:

"...When Joseph arose from his sleep, 24 he did as the angel of the Lord had commanded him, and took his wife and she bore to him a son, and 25 he called his name Jesus."

without the foreign notion that "he did not touch him until..." she bore him a son.

This reading of Matthew 1:16 is attested by various other later witnesses, as well as the testimony of two independent religious movements that co-existed in the second century, namely the Ebionites and the Adoptionists, both of which strongly rejected the virginal conception idea, that was not yet universally accepted at that time. We need to remember that according to the traditions of the Greek church fathers the Ebionites were those Jerusalem believers that escaped the destruction and were led by Jesus' brothers.
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Jesus was only 'RECKONED' as Joseph's son BECAUSE of the requirement that lineage be shown from the male's side.


YOU are testifying FALSELY by pushing that false article here. That article is not in support of Christianity, nor The New Testament witness.

[font="arial]

This article actually deals with the meaning of the Greek word translated as "reckoned". You might have missed it.

Put it this way, until very recently tribal membership was determined through the father's blood line. Adoption didn't ensure tribal membership. Therefore, a virgin-born Jesus doesn't belong to the tribe of Judah, ergo, he is not the Messiah.
 

veteran

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Aug 6, 2010
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It is not up for debate, regardless of HOW many versions are quoted, because ALL manuscript versions agree on the following...

Matt 1:18-20
18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.
19 Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily.
20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, "Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost."
(KJV)

The Holy Spirit testified that Mary was already pregnant with Child "of the Holy Ghost" BEFORE Mary and Joseph came together to consummate their marriage. That is PLENTY evidence that Jesus was NOT Joseph's flesh born son.


 

belantos

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Nov 12, 2010
184
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It is not up for debate, regardless of HOW many versions are quoted, because ALL manuscript versions agree on the following...

Matt 1:18-20
18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.
19 Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily.
20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, "Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost."
(KJV)

The Holy Spirit testified that Mary was already pregnant with Child "of the Holy Ghost" BEFORE Mary and Joseph came together to consummate their marriage. That is PLENTY evidence that Jesus was NOT Joseph's flesh born son.

Do you understand what the expression means that a child is of the power or presence of the Almighty? Do you understand what it means "before they came together"?

If Jesus was not the son of David according to the flesh, he is not the Messiah. The mother's lineage doesn't matter, we don't even know Mary's lineage. We only know that she and Elizabeth were cousins and Elizabeth was the daughter of Aaron, ergo, Mary might have been a Levite.