Hepzibah
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- Aug 13, 2012
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The problem with your argument is that you are bringing in Gnosticism, Augustine, Pelagius, George Fox, and church history when John himself tells us what he means. I am going to stay with Scripture.
John does not say, “If the Gnostics say they have no sin.” He includes himself and his Christian readers:
“If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us” (1 John 1:8).
Notice what immediately follows:
“If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness” (1 John 1:9).
Then John says again:
“If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us” (1 John 1:10).
John says “we” throughout the passage. He then addresses believers directly:
“My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous” (1 John 2:1).
That directly contradicts your interpretation. John commands Christians not to sin, but he also recognizes that a Christian may sin and tells believers that when this happens, “we have an advocate with the Father.”
First John 3:9 does not contradict 1 John 1:8 or 2:1. In context, John is describing the character and continuing conduct of someone born of God. The ESV renders the point clearly: “No one born of God makes a practice of sinning.” John is condemning a life characterized by sin. He is not teaching that a Christian reaches a condition in which he can truthfully say, “I have no sin.”
First John 1:8 does not excuse sin, and I have never used it that way. Christians are commanded to pursue holiness and put sin to death. But Scripture does not permit us to turn that command into a claim of personal sinlessness.
There is a difference between not practicing sin and claiming to be without sin. John commands the first and warns against claiming the second.
I certanly will not bring Augustine in, the author of Calvinism.
John is using 'we' in the royal 'we' form, if you have heard of that. It has been famously used by the late queen and is a common literally practise..
John says IF we sin not when we sin. Agreed that there is a remedy for it so that we can be thoroughly cleansed again.
You are missing out verse such as:
1John 3:6 Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him.
7 Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous.
8 He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
This is the problem with those with your theology - cherry picking texts that suit your ideas.
