WHY ISN'T THIS ANGEL ACCURSED?

[shepherdsword]

You say that Hebrews 9:15 also includes Gentiles.
We agree Gentiles werent under the first testament only Israel. Look at the verse again.............[Hebrews 9:15 KJV] "And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions [that were] under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance."..........Jesus died to redeem the transgressions that WERE UNDER THE FIRST TESTAMENT, If the Gentiles werent under the new testament they couldnt have any transgressions to redeem. Only Israel had transgressions committed under the first testament.

Jesus came to redeem Israel to be a blessing in the millennial kingdom and to be priests to lead the Gentiles to the Lord and be saved. Now we know that the blood shed only for the sins of Israel was also applied to us, Jew and Gentile. We only know this because Christ revealed it thru Paul

I am saying that the salvation of Christ includes gentiles. I am also saying this includes gentiles:

Ro 10:8-11
But what saith it? The word is nigh thee, even in thy mouth, and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith, which we preach; That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.For the scripture saith, Whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed.

 

[Doug]

WRONG....let's look at who the book of Romans is addressed to:

Ro 1:7 To all that be in Rome, beloved of God, called to be saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ.

This includes bot Jews and Gentiles. Chapters 9, 10 and 11 are spoken to the gentiles ABOUT the jews. It wasn't written to the jews.

Here is all I said.........
Paul cited this verse because Romans 9 10 & 11 are not about the body of Christ these chapters are dealing with Israel

The verses above are talking to OT Israel and Paul is applying them to unbelieving Israel at his writing............[Deuteronomy 30:14 KJV] "But the word [is] very nigh unto thee, in thy mouth, and in thy heart, that thou mayest do it."

I didnt say he wrote to the Jews. You said Paul also gave John 3:16, this passage preached salvation ONLY by his name in v18. Paul didnt preach salvation just by his name

 

[shepherdsword]

Here is all I said.........
Paul cited this verse because Romans 9 10 & 11 are not about the body of Christ these chapters are dealing with Israel

And you are wrong, He is talking to the gentiles ABOUT Israel. Let's just look at a proof text:

Ro 9:3-4
For I could wish that myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my kinsmen according to the flesh: Who are Israelites; to whom pertaineth the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises;

If he was talking to gentiles he would say "You my brethren" It is obvious that he is addressing Gentiles and talking to them about Israel. This is why he later tells them:

Ro 11:13 For I speak to you Gentiles, inasmuch as I am the apostle of the Gentiles, I magnify mine office:

He didn't change audience and go from adressing Jews and then Gentiles in a single letter

As for Ro 10:9-10? This proves it was for the Jew AND gentile:

Ro 10:9-11
That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved. For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation. For the scripture saith, Whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed


Ro 10:12 For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.

 

[Doug]

I am saying that the salvation of Christ includes gentiles. I am also saying this includes gentiles:

Ok I will say this
Jesus shed his blood for the new testament for the forgiveness of Israel's sins only. Hebrews 9:15 says his death was only for Israel. BUT,as seen in Acts 10 Gentiles could believe on the name of Jesus that Peter preached and become part of the believing remnant of Israel.
[Acts 10:43 KJV] "To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins."
[Acts 10:44 KJV] "While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word."
[Acts 10:45 KJV] "And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost."

 

[shepherdsword]

Ok I will say this
Jesus shed his blood for the new testament for the forgiveness of Israel's sins only. Hebrews 9:15 says his death was only for Israel.

"Only" is not in the text. It's something you are inserting. We know that Jesus died for the whole world:

1 Jn 2:2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

 

[Doug]

"Only" is not in the text. It's something you are inserting. We know that Jesus died for the whole world:

1 Jn 2:2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

No it isnt found in the text, but it is accurately descriptive of the fact that verses only apply forgiveness extended to Israel by the death and shed blood of Christ'

Look at these verses:
[Isaiah 53:5 KJV] "But he [was] wounded for our transgressions, [he was] bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace [was] upon him; and with his stripes we are healed." OUR TRANSGRESSIONS OUR INIQUITIES
[Isaiah 53:8 KJV] "He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken." IT DOESNT SAY FOR THE TRANSGRESSION OF ALL BUT FOR MY PEOPLE
[Isaiah 53:12 KJV] "Therefore will I divide him [a portion] with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong; because he hath poured out his soul unto death: and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors." BARE THE SIN OF MANY NOT ALL I see the many as being the believing remnant of Israel/the little flock

[Matthew 1:21 KJV] "And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins." SAVE HIS PEOPLE

Of course we have a different dispensation and it has been revealed that Christ died for all

 

[shepherdsword]

No it isnt found in the text, but it is accurately descriptive of the fact that verses only apply forgiveness extended to Israel by the death and shed blood of Christ'

Look at these verses:
[Isaiah 53:5 KJV] "But he [was] wounded for our transgressions, [he was] bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace [was] upon him; and with his stripes we are healed." OUR TRANSGRESSIONS OUR INIQUITIES
[Isaiah 53:8 KJV] "He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken." IT DOESNT SAY FOR THE TRANSGRESSION OF ALL BUT FOR MY PEOPLE
[Isaiah 53:12 KJV] "Therefore will I divide him [a portion] with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong; because he hath poured out his soul unto death: and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors." BARE THE SIN OF MANY NOT ALL I see the many as being the believing remnant of Israel/the little flock

[Matthew 1:21 KJV] "And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins." SAVE HIS PEOPLE

Of course we have a different dispensation and it has been revealed that Christ died for all

I have looked at the text and have proven that Christ died for all. I am not sure what you are trying to prove. THIS verse says it is for all. I am not sure why you keep trying to prove it wasn't.

1 Jn 2:2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

 

[Doug]

I have looked at the text and have proven that Christ died for all. I am not sure what you are trying to prove. THIS verse says it is for all. I am not sure why you keep trying to prove it wasn't.

1 Jn 2:2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

Just responding to you saying Hebrews 9:15 included Gentiles
We will leave it there
Anything else you wish to discuss be glad to