King James Version Only...?

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Pearl

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I've been reading the Preface in my NIV this morning And it was translated by more than 100 bible scholars from many different countries and denominations. That is why it is called International. Then before it was published by the Bible Society it was checked and rechecked by a committee made up of most denominations from across the world. But it didn't mention any Catholic involvement.
 
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Truther

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The morning star is just another name for the planet that we call Venus. Anyone who is determined to identify the morning star with Jesus every time it's mentioned appears to believe that Jesus is the planet Venus. (And of course Lucifer - in Latin - is also a name of the planet Venus, so the devil is the planet Venus too!)

Much simpler (and more sensible) to regard "morning star" as a metaphor. That avoids all these problems, and enables you to accept the Hebrew text as it is without having to mis-translate it.
NIV...Satan=Jesus=etc.
 

Truther

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You only show your Biblical illiteracy by that, and that by your following false teachers. Yet it still is a lot of your fault for not understanding, because it's still your choice to listen to false teachers.

Because of those you listen to, you have no clue as to rightly dividing the timelines given in that Revelation 19 chapter...

Revelation 19:1-9 =

The time just after the "day of the Lord" of Christ's future 2nd coming to end the Revelation Babylon, which will happen on the 'last day' of this present world. And the smoke of her burning rises there. And then His supper with His faithful elect, which is on earth at His return, per Zechariah 14, Isaiah 25, and even Revelation 22:14-15.

Revelation 19:10 =
Reverts to the present with the angel giving John the prophecy, and John by mistake bows to the angel, and the angel says to not do it.

Revelation 19:11-21 =

The 'day' of Christ's future 2nd coming to earth on the "day of the Lord" to fight with His army from Heaven. That is the day when Jesus returns to gather His faithful Church. And Jesus said in Matthew 24:29-31 that will be after the "great tribulation".


Just as many of the Books of God's Old Testament prophets has variable timelines in it, even between 2 verses at times (like Zechariah 9:9 for Christ's 1st coming, and Zechariah 9:10 about Christ's 2nd coming), so does Christ's Book of Revelation have these kind of variable timelines. Because you don't know this, it shows you haven't studied that much of The Bible, but instead have chosen to heed a bunch of doctrines from men (the false Pre-tribulational Rapture theory specifically) thus my remark about your Biblical illiteracy.

So you can just get mad at me for saying this, and go back to being Biblically illiterate and heeding those men who don't really care about your soul, and have deceived their own souls, or you get down to real Bible study asking God's help in understanding instead of relying on those men.

Moreover, more proof of where and when Christ's supper will be that He promised to hold with His disciples when He returns, is also shown by the event called the casting into the "outer darkness". In the story of Matthew 8 that the children of the kingdom that were bid to His supper that refused, they are to be cast to the "outer darkness" where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.

Matt 8:11-12
11 And I say unto you, That many shall come from the east and west, and shall sit down with Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, in the kingdom of heaven.
12 But the children of the kingdom shall be cast out into outer darkness: there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.

KJV

Per Matthew 25, even the "unprofitable servant" is to be cast into that "outer darkness". So what is that "outer darkness"? It is the place outside the gates of the holy city AFTER Jesus has returned to this earth per Zechariah 14 and Acts 1.

Rev 22:14-15
14 Blessed are they that do His commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city.
15 For without are dogs, and sorcerers, and whoremongers, and murderers, and idolaters, and whosoever loveth and maketh a lie.

KJV
Rev 19 shows Jesus and the saints in heaven having dinner(supper), eventually returning to earth to make war as an army after dinner.
 

Truther

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The KJV being the most commonly used bible doesn't make it the most accurate translation. A lot of passages like Jhn 14:2 are poorly rendered(in the case of Acts 12:4 and 1 Jhn 5:8-7, translators even willfully changed the passages), and words were all too often inserted and rearranged by men who thought they knew how the passage should be read(2 Pet. 2:5 and Rom. 10:4 are prime examples). Plenty of people would argue that the NASB is a superior translation.
Jeremiah says whoever places this kind of trust in man is cursed. Most of these "scholars" are deceived fools who suffer from a case of intellectual vanity. When comparing the original Hebrew and Greek against translated bibles, it's easy to see that they incorrectly rendered too many important passages.

Just to prove to you and everyone else in this thread how deceived and arrogant these people are, translated bibles tend to overlook the fact that the original Hebrew shows Gen. 1:2 was the result of Satan's rebellion. Instead of correctly rendering the words "tohu" and "bohu" to properly portray this extremely important piece of history, translated bibles portray God creating Earth in this uninhabitable state. Another great example is Gen. 1:3 where the original Hebrew basically shows God cleaning up the atmosphere so the light from the sun could reach the planet. Translated bibles however, imply light didn't exist until that moment.

The inspired Hebrew shows that all of Gen. 1 is describing God recreating the original conditions of Earth so human beings could live here. The Bible itself says this universe has existed for millions of years, if not longer, but religious people have problems believing that because they place too much trust in scholars.
It's not impossible at all. Anyone with a thorough knowledge of the Hebrew and Greek can do it, as long as they don't allow theological biases to cloud their work. It only seems impossible because translators tend to insert their own beliefs into the translations instead of objectively honoring what the inspired text says.
Did you know that the KJV translators realized the Pascha feast(Acts 12:4) as a first century church feast simultaneously happening with the Jews" Pascha feast?

All this time you were duped into thinking in 1611 "Easter" meant a pagan holiday.

See what fake PHD news can do to the masses?
 

Truther

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Your contempt for superior knowledge than an archaic, half a millennia old work by corrupt trinitarians is noted.

In your view, it is not possible to learn more than our ancestors knew. We fundamentally disagree on the role of knowledge in the human experience. Make a blessed day!
The unbiased KJV translation PROVES it is not corrupt.

Ancient trins did not infuse the idea of trinitarianism OR incarnationism in it at all.

They left that bias for the future modernists.

The modern Bibles are blatantly biased.
 

Truther

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Lol

These videos you posted cannot justify the modern versions in comparison of what Gail Riplinger showed in the video I posted.
 

Truther

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Does anyone on this thread want to ask me what Easter per Acts 12:4 actually represents?
 

Berserk

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@Deborah_ I do appreciate the KJV...It IS a good version, imho.

How can you say that? There are 400,000 variant readings in the Greek NT manuscripts alone due to miscopying by sleepy scribes over the centuries. And the KJV is based on the latest Byzantine manuscripts with the most textual errors and the most time for these errors to creep into the text. Many older and better manuscripts were discovered after the KJV translation was completed. Have you no respect for the pure Word of God?

Text Criticism groups biblical manuscripts into families by region, date, and text type. Then variant readings can be identified by region and date of entry to help get back to the original text. In this way, the KJV's many errors are easily identified. Finally, the reconstructed text is compared to biblical quotations from the early Church Fathers who quote these texts prior to the writing of the biblical manuscripts. The next result? The KJV is based on the most error-filled and worst texts!
Consider a simple example. John 1:28 identifies "Bethany beyond the Jordan" as the place where John the Baptist preached and baptized. Around 220 AD Origen went to the southern part of the Jordan and asked someone there where this "Bethany" was. The guy didn't know, but pointed to nearby "Bethabara" as an ideal place for baptisms. So "Bethabara" got put into John 1:28 in what became the KJV text, even though Origen admits the earlier manuscripts read "Bethany beyond the Jordan" instead! Origen had earlier NT manuscripts than any of ours.
 
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Eternally Grateful

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It's not impossible at all. Anyone with a thorough knowledge of the Hebrew and Greek can do it, as long as they don't allow theological biases to cloud their work. It only seems impossible because translators tend to insert their own beliefs into the translations instead of objectively honoring what the inspired text says.

A word for word is impossible. Without adding words. or phrases. which would make it not a word for word translation.

if we actually translated the greek text. the NT would be twice as large as it is now. Look up one of the many expended translations to see.
 

Davy

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Rev 19 shows Jesus and the saints in heaven having dinner(supper), eventually returning to earth to make war as an army after dinner.

No. The order of events in Revelation 19 is NOT sequential. And I showed why. It's in 3 timelines. The first is future after Christ's return (Rev.19:1-9). The second is present with John bowing to the angel (Rev.19:10). And the third is the event of Christ's actual day of coming to fight with His army of angels, which also is the day He gathers His faithful Church (Rev.19:11-21).

But you instead choose to heed men who have deceived you.
 

Truther

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No. The order of events in Revelation 19 is NOT sequential. And I showed why. It's in 3 timelines. The first is future after Christ's return (Rev.19:1-9). The second is present with John bowing to the angel (Rev.19:10). And the third is the event of Christ's actual day of coming to fight with His army of angels, which also is the day He gathers His faithful Church (Rev.19:11-21).

But you instead choose to heed men who have deceived you.
I see, so Rev 20 comes before Rev 6?

You advocate reading the book of Rev in reverse to avoid deception?

LOL
 

Davy

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I see, so Rev 20 comes before Rev 6?

You advocate reading the book of Rev in reverse to avoid deception?

LOL

You still don't have a clue.

Not all the EVENTS written happen in the ORDER THEY ARE WRITTEN. You cannot just follow the chapters one after another and think everything happens in the exact order it is written. For example, Christ's coming and the day of His wrath is shown on the 6th Seal, and on the 7th Trumpet, and on the 7th Vial.

So which Chapters do those 'events' happen in? Here...

6th Seal - Revelation 6
7th Trumpet - Revelation 11
7th Vial - Revelation 16

It is men's doctrines that have deceived you into thinking the way all the events in Revelation are written are given in sequential order. If that were so, then there's no way Christ's coming should be even mentioned until the 19th chapter! Those men you listen to like to change the order to suit 'their' theories, like the Church is raptured by the time of the Revelation 6 chapter, which is a lie.
 

ThePuffyBlob

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Out of all the theological ideas and topics that I've come across over the years, the issue of KJV only is one that I have not encountered until recently. I do appreciate the KJV and have a few Bibles in that translation, but to say that it is the only true word of God in English seems to be a far stretch. Also, this opens up a can of worms.

a) Do missionaries that travel to foreign countries where English is not the language require the people to learn old school English in order to have God's true Word?

b) Is English the only language that the Bible must be in?

c) What about all the Bible translations before the 1611 KJV?

Those are just a few questions I have regarding this topic. I'd like to ask the members here, what are you thoughts on the subject?
and then what about those books that were removed from the kjv

i just hope someone share legit pdfs like a dead sea scroll
 

Wrangler

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The KJV is based on the most error-filled and worst texts!
Agreed.

From a historical standpoint, the KJV is the most significant and influential book ever written in the English language. However, it's day in the sun is over. Not only is it flawed based on a FROM analysis, it is obsolete in terms of what language it is being translated TO, i.e., no one today speaks the kings English of half a millennia ago.

I have observed that many KJV-only folks have made it an idol.