tigger 2
Well-Known Member
...........................................I read an interesting perspective on God the Son and the Father. He wasn't the Son of God until He was born. Prior to that He was God, the Second person of the Trinity, who emptied Himself and became a Son.
"For to which of the angels did He ever say: “You are My Son, Today I have begotten You”? And again: “I will be to Him a Father, And He shall be to Me a Son”? Heb. 1:5
In the beginning He was with God, He was God. That implies at least two persons. You're aren't with yourself, so you must be with someone else, God. And then we see all three at Jesus baptism which cancels out modalism.
Anyways, I think I had enough of this bunch. Most of them have me on ignore since I exposed the darkside of the JW's (Auntie Jane's posts about Christendom). That was it, I am an Opposer now ... a memo was sent out. It's a dead end.
Well, you could actually apply some true research to my carefully researched post concerning John 1:1c (post #2 above). Where have I made an error? How do you refute the actual grammar used by John himself? Where have I misquoted a trinitarian NT grammar expert? Are there any other proper examples which would disprove the conclusion I have found concerning the 20 or so proper examples presented in my studies? Are there any flaws in choosing the examples I have found in John's own writing? Etc.
There is plenty to do besides merely saying something is false or presenting other scriptures which appear to disagree (depending on the translator's opinion and disregard of other alternate translations).