In the Righteousness thread started by JohnnyB, which had been discussing Romans 2, I began to question who exactly had 'circumcision of the heart', as I'd always assumed it could be only in Christians.
If anyone reading can understand the question, then, I'm interested in your thoughts. :)
Here is part of a post (I wrote) outlining what stumped me.
'These verses at the end of Romans 2, seem to be referring to righteousness by faith in Jesus Christ (because of the mention of circumcison of the heart), even though Paul has not finished making his case which concludes at Romans 3:23.
28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither [is that] circumcision, which is outward in the flesh: 29 But he [is] a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision [is that] of the heart, in the spirit, [and] not in the letter; whose praise [is] not of men, but of God.
So this raises a question I had never considered - and have never heard preached upon - namely.... does this mean that those who kept the law flawlessly (acknowledging their sins, bringing their tithes and offerings with mourning over 'the sin' in their hearts Eze 9:4), were 'circumcised in heart' - were not 'stiff-necked' (idolatrous, proud)
Deuteronomy 10:16, 2 Chron 30:8, Acts 7:51?
And yet still, this was not the circumcision of Jesus Christ? Col 2:11
Look at this as a parallel, please:
Acts 19:4 Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying to the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.
5 When they heard [this], they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.'
If anyone reading can understand the question, then, I'm interested in your thoughts. :)
Here is part of a post (I wrote) outlining what stumped me.
'These verses at the end of Romans 2, seem to be referring to righteousness by faith in Jesus Christ (because of the mention of circumcison of the heart), even though Paul has not finished making his case which concludes at Romans 3:23.
28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither [is that] circumcision, which is outward in the flesh: 29 But he [is] a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision [is that] of the heart, in the spirit, [and] not in the letter; whose praise [is] not of men, but of God.
So this raises a question I had never considered - and have never heard preached upon - namely.... does this mean that those who kept the law flawlessly (acknowledging their sins, bringing their tithes and offerings with mourning over 'the sin' in their hearts Eze 9:4), were 'circumcised in heart' - were not 'stiff-necked' (idolatrous, proud)
Deuteronomy 10:16, 2 Chron 30:8, Acts 7:51?
And yet still, this was not the circumcision of Jesus Christ? Col 2:11
Look at this as a parallel, please:
Acts 19:4 Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying to the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.
5 When they heard [this], they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.'