Did Matthew quote Hosea out of context?

[TonyChanYT]

Yes, according to our modern formal scientific sense of scholarship.

Hosea 11:

1 “When Israel was a child, I loved him, and out of Egypt, I called my son. 2 But the more they were called, the more they went away from me. They sacrificed to the Baals and they burned incense to images.

Hosea was talking about the rebellious nature of the Israelites.

Matthew cites Hosea out of context in Matthew 2:15 and applies it to Jesus:

[Egypt] where he stayed until the death of Herod. And so was fulfilled what the Lord had said through the prophet: "Out of Egypt I called my son."

One can find quite a few such instances where the NT writers didn't scientifically cite the OT scriptures. What were they thinking?

In Jewish hermeneutics, there are four levels of interpretive principles:

1. Peshat is the simple, obvious, literal meaning of a biblical text.
2. Remez (hint) is the typological or allegorical interpretation.
3. Derash digs deeper to search for the intent of the divine author of the text.
4. Sod unveils the secret mystical meanings.

Context does not deter one from searching for the deeper truth. Moreover, Jesus encouraged his disciples to read the Messiah in the OT, Luke 24:

25 He said to them, “How foolish you are, and how slow to believe all that the prophets have spoken! 26 Did not the Messiah have to suffer these things and then enter his glory?” 27 And beginning with Moses and all the Prophets, he explained to them what was said in all the Scriptures concerning himself.

Did Matthew quote Hosea properly?

Yes, according to Jewish hermeneutics.

Another case can be found when Jesus quoted Isaiah in Luke 4:

19 to proclaim the year of the Lord’s favor.”

Here is the original context, Isaiah 61:2

to proclaim the year of the LORD's favor and the day of our God's vengeance, to comfort all who mourn

Jesus didn't continue the verse and mentioned God's vengeance because the year of the LORD'S favor and the day of our God's vengeance are two distinct and separate events. They are his first and second comings.

Did Jesus quote Isaiah properly?

Yes, according to Jewish hermeneutics.

See also May HIS camp become desolate, and let there be no one to dwell in IT.

 

[shepherdsword]

Yes, according to our modern formal scientific sense of scholarship.

Hosea 11:


Hosea was talking about the rebellious nature of the Israelites.

Matthew cites Hosea out of context in Matthew 2:15 and applies it to Jesus:


One can find quite a few such instances where the NT writers didn't scientifically cite the OT scriptures. What were they thinking?

In Jewish hermeneutics, there are four levels of interpretive principles:

1. Peshat is the simple, obvious, literal meaning of a biblical text.
2. Remez (hint) is the typological or allegorical interpretation.
3. Derash digs deeper to search for the intent of the divine author of the text.
4. Sod unveils the secret mystical meanings.

Context does not deter one from searching for the deeper truth. Moreover, Jesus encouraged his disciples to read the Messiah in the OT, Luke 24:


Did Matthew quote Hosea properly?

Yes, according to Jewish hermeneutics.

Another case can be found when Jesus quoted Isaiah in Luke 4:


Here is the original context, Isaiah 61:2


Jesus didn't continue the verse and mentioned God's vengeance because the year of the LORD'S favor and the day of our God's vengeance are two distinct and separate events. They are his first and second comings.

Did Jesus quote Isaiah properly?

Yes, according to Jewish hermeneutics.

See also May HIS camp become desolate, and let there be no one to dwell in IT.

Matthew was using the allegorical "Remez" interpretation instead of the literal "Peshat" method

 

[ScottA]

I haven't seen @TonyChanYT around for a while.

But whatever method one uses when considering what context is correct, it is important to understand that one context event is likely to have come about for the sake of a greater context to come. A good example is David's personal suffering (his own local and immediate context) became a prophetic word about Messiah--which was no violation of context, but rather God bringing forth both events, the one confirming the other. In other words, David did not only suffer for his own circumstances--but also for Christ, as a prophetic witness.

 

[Rockerduck]

There are many dual prophecies, by the Prophets in the Old Testament. Hosea 11:1 is one. It was by the Word of God Hosea said it. Divid the statement in two parts and it works. There are many one verse statements out of pages of writings that apply to prophecies about Jesus. In fact, the whole bible is about Jesus.

 

[Davy]

Yes, according to our modern formal scientific sense of scholarship.

Hosea 11:


Hosea was talking about the rebellious nature of the Israelites.

Matthew cites Hosea out of context in Matthew 2:15 and applies it to Jesus:


One can find quite a few such instances where the NT writers didn't scientifically cite the OT scriptures. What were they thinking?

You are mixing up two different Bible subjects.

Hosea 11 is about Ephraim and the ten northern tribe "kingdom of Israel" when they fell away after Solomon's day per 1 Kings 11 thru 2 Kings 17. The whole Book of Hosea is mainly about this.

Thus Hosea 11:1 is actually a reference to Israel's captivity in Egypt with God having brought them out through Moses. God is using that idea about deliverance needed for Ephraim in that Hosea 11 Chapter...

Hos 11
11 When Israel was a child, then I loved him, and called My son out of Egypt.

Per Exodus 4:22, God calls Israel His son also, His firstborn.

2 As they called them, so they went from them: they sacrificed unto Baalim, and burned incense to graven images.

What did the children of Israel then do when they came out of their captivity in Egypt, and Moses went up to mount Sinai? They fell into Baal idol worship making a gold calf idol. So this is another pointer to the idea of 'ISRAEL' being called out of Egypt during the time of Moses, not Lord Jesus at His birth with Joseph and Mary hiding Him in Egypt.

3 I taught Ephraim also to go, taking them by their arms; but they knew not that I healed them.
4 I drew them with cords of a man, with bands of love: and I was to them as they that take off the yoke on their jaws, and I laid meat unto them.
5 He shall not return into the land of Egypt, but the Assyrian shall be his king, because they refused to return.

That is about Ephraim's (& ten tribes) rebellion against God, and God removing them out of the holy land captive to Assyria per 2 Kings 17.


6 And the sword shall abide on his cities, and shall consume his branches, and devour them, because of their own counsels.
7 And My people are bent to backsliding from Me: though they called them to the most High, none at all would exalt him.
8 How shall I give thee up, Ephraim? how shall I deliver thee, Israel? how shall I make thee as Admah? how shall I set thee as Zeboim? Mine heart is turned within Me, My repentings are kindled together.

9 I will not execute the fierceness of Mine anger, I will not return to destroy Ephraim: for I am God, and not man; the Holy One in the midst of thee: and I will not enter into the city.

10 They shall walk after the LORD: he shall roar like a lion: when he shall roar, then the children shall tremble from the west.

That, believe it or not, is a reference to where God would scatter the majority of Ephraim and the ten lost tribes of Israel, to the west.

11 They shall tremble as a bird out of Egypt, and as a dove out of the land of Assyria: and I will place them in their houses, saith the LORD.
12 Ephraim compasseth me about with lies, and the house of Israel with deceit: but Judah yet ruleth with God, and is faithful with the saints.
KJV

After God split old Israel into two separate kingdoms per 1 Kings 11, the "house of Israel" applied only to the ten northern tribes, and "Judah" applied only to the southern "house of Judah" kingdom at Jerusalem/Judea in the southern part of the holy lands. The "house of Judah" (Jews) remained in the land when God scattered the ten tribes under Ephraim, which is what that, "but Judah yet ruleth with God, and is faithful with the saints", is about. The ten tribes were then scattered like God said He would do, and only the Jews were left in the land.